SDLE Mock Test – DentQuiz

Mock Test

SDLE Mock Test

DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction

You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start.
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The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام.
Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know.

Blueprint

Endodontics : 15%
Restorative : 30%
Prosthodontics : 17.5%
Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 10%
Periodontics and Implant : 17.5%
Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 10%

Please fill in your details to continue

NameEmailPhone Number

1 / 200

Category: Endodontics

1) A tooth with trauma 20 years ago shows no symptoms but does not respond to cold tests and has a calcified canal. What is the prognosis of non-surgical endo?

Good

Fair

Poor

Hopeless

2 / 200

Category: Endodontics

2) What is the prognosis of a tooth with a supracrestal perforation?

Hopeless

Fair

Poor

Good

3 / 200

Category: Endodontics

3) What material is placed in the clot during revascularization of immature teeth?

MTA

Tribiotic

Calcium hydroxide

Gutta-percha

4 / 200

Category: Endodontics

4) A tooth had RCT, failed, and was re-treated. An apical abscess is present. What is the prognosis?

Poor

Fair

Questionable

Good

5 / 200

Category: Endodontics

5) A tooth was avulsed for 30 minutes and kept in milk. What type of splint is recommended?

Rigid splint

No splint

Functional 2-week splint

Semi-rigid splint

6 / 200

Category: Endodontics

6) A patient with lingering pain and mild pain on biting. X-ray shows a large radiolucency. What is the diagnosis?

Irreversible pulpitis with asymptomatic apical periodontitis

Reversible pulpitis

Normal

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis

7 / 200

Category: Endodontics

7) What is the best analgesic for post-endodontic pain?

None

NSAID

Acetaminophen

Opioids

8 / 200

Category: Endodontics

8) How long should an avulsed tooth with an open apex be splinted after 2 hours?

2 weeks functional splint

6 weeks

4-6 weeks functional splint

8 weeks rigid splint

9 / 200

Category: Endodontics

9) A PA radiograph shows large bone resorption adjacent to tooth #32, which is vital. What is the likely cause?

Endo-Perio

Perio-Endo

Endo

Perio

10 / 200

Category: Endodontics

10) A sound tooth has pain on percussion and no response to cold test. What is the diagnosis?

Endo primary with perio secondary

True combined

Periodontal combined

Perio primary with endo secondary

11 / 200

Category: Endodontics

11) What gives MTA its radiopacity?

Bismuth oxide

Calcium oxide

Silica

Zinc oxide

12 / 200

Category: Endodontics

12) A crown fracture involving enamel and dentin without pulp exposure is classified as:

Complicated crown fracture

Root fracture

Uncomplicated crown fracture

Crown infarction

13 / 200

Category: Endodontics

13) A tooth has an isolated wide pocket, necrotic pulp, and radiolucency. What is the diagnosis?

Primary perio secondary endo

Normal

Primary endo secondary perio

Combined endo-perio lesion

14 / 200

Category: Endodontics

14) An X-ray of tooth #7 shows radiopacity attached to the palatal root. What is the treatment?

Apical surgery

Observation

RCT

Extraction

15 / 200

Category: Endodontics

15) What type of X-ray is best for an avulsed tooth?

OPG

Occlusal

Bitewing

CBCT and 2 PA

16 / 200

Category: Endodontics

16) What causes brown precipitation in endodontic treatment?

Chx with sodium hypochlorite

MTA with saline

Calcium hydroxide with saline

EDTA with sodium hypochlorite

17 / 200

Category: Endodontics

17) Which dental material requires careful handling due to its caustic nature?

Formocresol

Sodium hypochlorite

Calcium hydroxide

Ferric sulfate

18 / 200

Category: Endodontics

18) Which sealer is resorbable?

Calcium hydroxide

ZOE

Resin-based sealer

Glass ionomer

19 / 200

Category: Endodontics

19) What is the best approach for RCT in a tooth with open apex?

High concentration NaOCl

Side-vented needle

Ultrasonic irrigation

Low concentration NaOCl

20 / 200

Category: Endodontics

20) A patient has a horizontal root fracture between the middle and apical thirds. The fracture line is radiopaque, and there is no response to cold test. What is the treatment?

Extraction

Pulpotomy

RCT for all roots

RCT for coronal part only

21 / 200

Category: Endodontics

21) What happens to the permanent tooth after central intrusion?

Palatally displaced

Buccally displaced

Hyperplasia of the root

Devitalization

22 / 200

Category: Endodontics

22) A molar with 2 posts and no RCT has no symptoms. What is the management?

Re-RCT

Extraction

Follow-up

Assure the patient

23 / 200

Category: Endodontics

23) Pain increases with hot food and decreases with cold. What is the likely diagnosis?

Necrosis

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

Reversible pulpitis

Periodontitis

24 / 200

Category: Endodontics

24) During RCT, an apex locator makes a sound when inserted. What is happening?

Normal

File separation

Apical perforation

Coronal perforation

25 / 200

Category: Endodontics

25) Sharp pain in a tooth is primarily transmitted by which nerve fiber?

A-delta

A

B

C

26 / 200

Category: Endodontics

26) A patient has implants in the anterior lower jaw. The adjacent natural tooth is mobile (grade 3) with a very short root and no pain on endo tests. What is the treatment?

Endo immediately and adjunctive Perio

Perio and follow up

Endo and follow up

Perio then endo

27 / 200

Category: Endodontics

27) A 14-year-old with an avulsed tooth after 3 hours. What is the management?

RCT before reimplantation

Soak in 2% NaF and reimplant

Immediate reimplantation

Extraction

28 / 200

Category: Endodontics

28) What is the treatment for a small pulp exposure in a permanent tooth after 20 minutes?

Direct pulp capping

Extraction

Pulpotomy

RCT

29 / 200

Category: Endodontics

29) Which tooth is most difficult to anesthetize in symptomatic irreversible pulpitis?

Upper molar

Upper premolar

Lower molar

Lower premolar

30 / 200

Category: Endodontics

30) Why is the smear layer removed during endo?

To reduce sealer setting time

None

To allow sealer penetration

To improve antimicrobial activity

31 / 200

Category: Restorative

1) Why is caries risk assessment important before periodontal treatment?

To check deep pockets

To check root caries

To assess bone loss

To evaluate gingival health

32 / 200

Category: Restorative

2) How should a bevel be placed in a class I preparation without burs?

Chisel

Enamel hatchet

Excavator

Bevel hatchet

33 / 200

Category: Restorative

3) Condensation of amalgam for 8 minutes results in:

Easy to carve

Residual mercury increases

Amalgam will set

No change

34 / 200

Category: Restorative

4) Which type of pin is most retentive in amalgam restorations?

Cemented

None

Friction-locked

Self-threaded

35 / 200

Category: Restorative

5) What is the best dentist position for treating teeth #41 and #31?

12 o'clock

11 o'clock

7 o'clock

9 o'clock

36 / 200

Category: Restorative

6) Why is polyacrylate cement preferred over zinc phosphate?

Ease of use

Biocompatibility

Cost-effectiveness

Strength

37 / 200

Category: Restorative

7) What is the best method to diagnose interproximal caries?

Transillumination

Clinical examination

Periapical radiograph

Bitewing

38 / 200

Category: Restorative

8) Which material is the most ductile and malleable?

Platinum

Amalgam

Titanium

Gold

39 / 200

Category: Restorative

9) How can the working time of zinc oxide be increased?

Mix on a cool glass slab

Reduce mixing time

Use a faster-setting cement

Increase powder/liquid ratio

40 / 200

Category: Restorative

10) Which material requires glazing to avoid dehydration?

Composite

Amalgam

Gold

Glass ionomer

41 / 200

Category: Restorative

11) Why is water spray used during cavity preparation?

To reduce dentinal fluid movement

To prevent particle inhalation

To decrease dentine heating

To clean the field

42 / 200

Category: Restorative

12) How does GIC compare to composite in terms of thermal expansion?

Excellent coefficient of expansion

Poor coefficient of expansion

Similar to dentin

Similar to enamel

43 / 200

Category: Restorative

13) An older patient presents with thickening around the apex of a tooth. What is the cause?

Physiologic remodeling

Trauma

Infection

Cementum deposition

44 / 200

Category: Restorative

14) How should carbide burs be evaluated for survival and effectiveness?

Low speed before tooth contact

High speed before tooth contact

High speed out of oral cavity

Low speed out of oral cavity

45 / 200

Category: Restorative

15) What is the anatomical difference between central incisors before and after avulsion?

Distal crown rounding

Longer distal slope

Mesial crown rounding

Longer mesial slope

46 / 200

Category: Restorative

16) Which cement is most irritating to the pulp?

GIC

Zinc phosphate

Resin

Polycarboxylate

47 / 200

Category: Restorative

17) A 52-year-old patient has a deep stained groove in tooth #36 with no softness. What is the best treatment?

No treatment

PRR

Class I composite

Fissure sealant

48 / 200

Category: Restorative

18) A patient complains of food impaction after an amalgam restoration. What is the likely cause?

Open contact

Overhanging restoration

Lack of embrasure

Occlusal trauma

49 / 200

Category: Restorative

19) What is the best restoration for a class V cavity in a patient with Sjogren's syndrome?

Amalgam

GIC

Composite

RMGIC

50 / 200

Category: Restorative

20) Why is the axial wall finished with a high-speed bur after RCT and ZnOE obturation?

Remove ZnOE residue

Reduce sensitivity

Smooth the surface

Improve adhesion

51 / 200

Category: Restorative

21) A patient has an overhanging amalgam restoration with no symptoms. What is the best action?

Remove overhang

No treatment

Restoration

Monitor

52 / 200

Category: Restorative

22) An amalgam restoration opposite a gold restoration causes pain. What is the management?

Extraction

No treatment

Varnish in amalgam

Change restoration

53 / 200

Category: Restorative

23) Why does a pin in an amalgam restoration fracture?

Incorrect pin placement

Poor material quality

All of the above

Excessive force

54 / 200

Category: Restorative

24) What happens if alginate is left under a wet towel for an hour before pouring?

Syneresis

Expansion

Shrinkage

Imbibition

55 / 200

Category: Restorative

25) A resin composite restoration has 1 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used?

No liner

RMGIC base

Calcium hydroxide liner

Both

56 / 200

Category: Restorative

26) A patient with attrition has severe cervical pain. What is the likely cause?

Cracked tooth

Irreversible pulpitis

Dentin hypersensitivity

Reversible pulpitis

57 / 200

Category: Restorative

27) A 15-year-old patient has extensive proximal caries. What is the best treatment plan?

Caries excavation and temporization

Cast metal crowns

Diet control

Amalgam restorations

58 / 200

Category: Restorative

28) What makes calcium hydroxide superior as a liner material?

Sedative effect

Thermal insulation

Chemical insulation

Secondary dentin formation

59 / 200

Category: Restorative

29) Which type of dentine is deposited in response to very deep caries?

Primary

Reparative

Secondary

Reactionary

60 / 200

Category: Restorative

30) What happens when filler content in a restoration is increased?

Increased wear resistance

Decreased strength

Increased hydrophilicity

Increased shrinkage

61 / 200

Category: Restorative

31) Why is a cool glass slab recommended for mixing zinc oxide?

Improve consistency

Shorten setting time

Reduce exothermic reaction

Increase solubility

62 / 200

Category: Restorative

32) Which approach is more esthetic for a class III restoration?

Facial

Both

None

Lingual

63 / 200

Category: Restorative

33) Which impression material can be poured after one day?

Alginate

Zinc oxide

Polysulfide

PVS

64 / 200

Category: Restorative

34) What is the dentist's position when working on teeth #41 and #31?

11 o'clock

12 o'clock

7 o'clock

9 o'clock

65 / 200

Category: Restorative

35) What does chronic gagging primarily cause?

Attrition

Abfraction

Erosion

Abrasion

66 / 200

Category: Restorative

36) What is the definition of resilience?

Ability to absorb energy

Hardness

Brittleness

Resistance to fracture

67 / 200

Category: Restorative

37) Which material undergoes an acid-base reaction during setting?

Glass ionomer

RMGI

Composite

Componer

68 / 200

Category: Restorative

38) What is the characteristic setting reaction of PVS?

Condensation

Polymerization

Cross-linking

Addition

69 / 200

Category: Restorative

39) What causes a grainy impression when moisture contaminates the powder?

Tear in impression

Distorted impression

Grainy impression

Chalky cast

70 / 200

Category: Restorative

40) Why is composite better than GIC for certain restorations?

Less microleakage

Better aesthetics

Higher strength

Less marginal leakage

71 / 200

Category: Restorative

41) Which type of GIC is used for cementation?

Type 1

Type 4

Type 3

Type 2

72 / 200

Category: Restorative

42) Which cement has the potential for fluoride release?

Zinc phosphate

Polycarboxylate

Zinc phosphosilicate

Resin cement

73 / 200

Category: Restorative

43) What happens during syneresis and imbibition of alginate?

Expansion

Absorption of water (imbibition)

Loss of water (syneresis)

Shrinkage

74 / 200

Category: Restorative

44) A patient has a small amalgam restoration in #16 that needs replacement. What is the best option?

Gold

Glass ionomer

Composite

Cast ceramic

75 / 200

Category: Restorative

45) Why is flowable composite preferred over packable composite in preventive resin restorations?

Better aesthetics

Higher strength

Low filler content

Less microleakage

76 / 200

Category: Restorative

46) A patient has hypercementosis. What is the best management?

Extraction

No treatment

RCT

Follow-up

77 / 200

Category: Restorative

47) How can stone setting be accelerated without compromising quality?

Increase powder/liquid ratio

Slurry water

Reduce mixing time

Hot tap water

78 / 200

Category: Restorative

48) Which restoration for posterior teeth is both aesthetic and durable?

High filler composite

Amalgam

RMGI

Low filler composite

79 / 200

Category: Restorative

49) How does the radiopacity of a fiber post compare to flowable composite in an X-ray?

More radiopaque

Less radiopaque

Same radiopacity

Not different

80 / 200

Category: Restorative

50) A broken tooth cannot accommodate a rubber dam. What is the best alternative?

Place on adjacent teeth

No isolation

Use a clamp

Cotton roll isolation

81 / 200

Category: Restorative

51) What are the components of preventive resin restorations?

Composite

Componer

RMGI

Glass ionomer

82 / 200

Category: Restorative

52) Which instrument is used to finish the buccal and lingual proximal walls?

Excavator

Gingival margin trimmer

Chisel

Enamel hatchet

83 / 200

Category: Restorative

53) A deep carious lesion is indicated for extraction. Which of the following criteria helps in choosing the type of extraction?

Percussion

Pulpal pain

3 site caries

Gingival swelling in buccal

84 / 200

Category: Restorative

54) A 15-year-old patient with pain and radiolucency under #46 wants extraction, but the mother is unsure. What is the best action?

Refuse extraction

Ask for parental consent

Do the patient's desire

No treatment

85 / 200

Category: Restorative

55) What does chronic fluoride exposure primarily affect?

Skeletal structures

None

Both

Dental structures

86 / 200

Category: Restorative

56) What can impinging clamp pressure on tissue cause?

Recession

Bleeding

Infection

Swelling

87 / 200

Category: Restorative

57) What is the most abundant component of dentin by weight?

Collagen

Organic material

Inorganic material

Water

88 / 200

Category: Restorative

58) Which factor indicates a high risk of caries?

Good oral hygiene

Open contact

Fluorosis

Using miswak

89 / 200

Category: Restorative

59) A patient with gingivitis needs a class II composite restoration. What could affect the composite?

All of the above

No direct effect

Polymerization shrinkage

Poor adhesion

90 / 200

Category: Restorative

60) A patient with bruxism has a fractured amalgam. What is the best treatment option?

Cast restoration

No treatment

Ceramic inlay

Composite

91 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

1) A patient with stable MIC wants to construct a crown. Where should the crown be placed?

CR

CO

Between them

MIC

92 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

2) A photo shows a crown on #46 with open margins mesially and distally. What is the cause?

Shrinkage during casting

Over-tapered preparation

Distortion of final impression

Expansion of core

93 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

3) What is the role of flux in soldering?

Reduce melting temp of solder

Act as separating medium

Prevent oxidation

Improve flow of solder

94 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

4) What is an advantage of a modified ridge pontic?

Esthetic and no surgery required

Cost-effective

Easy to clean

Strong and durable

95 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

5) In a PFM crown, if the porcelain overlaps the cervical margin, what is this called?

Metal margin

Metalless

Collarless

Porcelain margin

96 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

6) A patient complains of a metallic taste and pain after cementing a cast post and crown. What is the cause?

Vertical root fracture

Eccentric occlusal interference

Mobile crown

Poor cementation

97 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

7) A patient has gum recession and a small restoration on an anterior tooth. What is aesthetically important?

MIC

Mesiodistal width of restoration

Vertical height of gum

Buccal-lingual width of gum

98 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

8) During try-in, there was high occlusal contact. What instrument is used to measure crown thickness?

Iwanson caliper

Occlusal gauge

Periodontal probe

Boley gauge

99 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

9) An ovate pontic causes tissue irritation. What material is most likely the cause?

Porcelain

Nickel chromium

Resin

Gold

100 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

10) What is the first step during lithium disilicate cementation?

Etching with phosphoric acid

Cleaning with alcohol

Etching with hydrofluoric acid

Sandblasting

101 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

11) What is the etchant used for porcelain?

Nitric acid

Phosphoric acid 37%

Hydrofluoric acid 9.5 to 10%

Sulfuric acid

102 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

12) What is a complication of a mesially tilted #37 for a 3-unit bridge?

Pulp exposure

Short mesial axial wall

Irreversible pulpitis

Fracture

103 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

13) In tooth preparation for a full ceramic crown, what principle is violated if the axial wall length is 2 mm?

Preservation of tooth structure

Preservation of periodontium

Marginal integrity

Retention and support

104 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

14) During try-in of an upper molar, the crown glides superior-anteriorly. What should be adjusted?

Mesial inclination of the upper

Lingual inclination of the mandible

Buccal inclination of the upper

Distal inclination of the mandible

105 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

15) A patient complains of food accumulation and bleeding around a PFM crown. What is the management?

Deep scaling and root planing

Suction the crown and assess restorability

Combined endodontic and periodontal surgery

Proceed with endodontic treatment through PFM crown

106 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

16) A ceramic onlay grips the shim stock but has no contact with other teeth. What does this mean?

Slight hyper occlusion

Occlusal interference, needs adjustment

Good contact

Deficient contact

107 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

17) A patient with a large amalgam restoration and caries is a bruxer. What is the best restoration option?

Amalgam

Metal crown

Ceramic onlay

Composite

108 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

18) A patient has a crown on #26 with protrusive interference. How can you manage it?

Buccal inclination of upper

Lingual inclination of upper

Mesial inclination of upper

Buccal inclination of lower

109 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

19) What is a complication of a pontic ridge lap?

Tissue irritation

Poor retention

Fracture

Less esthetic

110 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

20) What component attaches the prosthesis to the abutment tooth?

Retainer

Crown

Connector

Pontic

111 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

1) A patient with severe ridge resorption needs to replace 4 missing upper anterior teeth. What is the best option?

RPD

Fixed bridge

Implant

No treatment

112 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

2) A patient has 6 mm from the gingival margin to the floor of the mouth. What major connector should be used?

None of the above

Lingual bar

Palatal strap

Lingual plate

113 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

3) A patient has hypersensitivity to percussion after receiving an RPD. What is the cause?

Poor fit

Excessive retention

None of the above

Defective occlusion

114 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

4) A patient with bruxism has a complete denture. What should be done to fix the problem?

None of the above

Rebase the denture

Reline the denture

Make teeth cusps inclined 30 degrees

115 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

5) A diabetic patient with a denture has pinpoint hematoma. What should be done?

Remove the denture until healing

Wear the denture only during the day

Antifungal

Take vitamins

116 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

6) What is a combination clasp in dental prosthetics?

A clasp with both cast and wrought wire components

A clasp with only wrought wire components

None of the above

A clasp with only cast components

117 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

7) A patient lost tooth #11 due to trauma and wants immediate replacement. What is the best option?

Implant

Fixed bridge

No treatment

Transitional RPD

118 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

8) A patient with a history of anterior RPD has a red palate. What is the treatment?

Analgesics

Relieve the denture

Antibiotics

No action needed

119 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

9) A patient with a perfect-fitting denture has redness in all areas. What is the cause?

Poor relief in some areas

Increased vertical dimension

Poor fit

Wearing denture all the time

120 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

10) A patient is missing teeth #35, #38, and #48. What is the Kennedy classification?

Class 1

Class 3

Class 2 mod 1

Class 1 mod 1

121 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

11) A patient has soreness on the ridge and slopes of the denture. What is the cause?

Candida infection

Hyperocclusion

Poor denture fit

None of the above

122 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

12) A patient cannot insert a complete denture the next morning after removing it at night. What is the cause?

Occlusal issue

Left in a dry field overnight

Lack of insertion skills

Lack of frenum relief

123 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

13) A patient with a severely resorbed ridge needs a new mandibular denture. What is the best impression technique?

Admix

Mucostatic

Selective pressure

Neutral zone

124 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

14) What is the main concern if a reciprocal arm fractures?

Denture retention

Patient comfort

Abutment stability

Occlusal balance

125 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

15) A patient needs a crown on #36 with canine guidance occlusion. What articulator should be used?

Semi-adjustable articulator

Non-adjustable articulator

Hand articulator

Fully adjustable articulator

126 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

1) After space analysis, a patient has 26 mm of space but requires 25 mm. What does this indicate?

Crowding

Spacing

Normal

No treatment needed

127 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

2) A patient has Class II malocclusion and lower crowding of 9 mm. What is the best treatment?

No extraction

Extract upper second premolars and lower first premolars

Extract upper first premolars and lower second premolars

Orthognathic surgery

128 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

3) A 22-year-old patient has Class II malocclusion with a good facial profile and well-aligned lower teeth. What is the best treatment?

Functional appliance

No treatment

Orthognathic surgery

Extract upper first premolars

129 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

4) A patient complains of diffuse redness and pain in the left buccal mucosa 6 weeks after orthodontic installation. What is the most likely cause?

Extended wire

Allergy to NiTi wire

Wire trauma

Infection

130 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

5) A patient wants to finish orthodontic treatment quickly. What is the best option?

Surgery

No treatment

Accelerated orthodontics

Cortical perforation

131 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

6) A patient complains of a deep bite and excessive vertical growth of the maxilla. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Normal growth

Skeletal Class III

Skeletal Class II

Vertical excess of the maxilla

132 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

7) A 12-year-old patient has Class III malocclusion with a normal mandibular position. What is the best treatment?

Slow expansion

Surgery

No treatment

Rapid expansion

133 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

8) A 5-year-old patient has a crossbite. What is the best management?

Use a fixed appliance

No treatment

Use a removable appliance

Wait for mixed dentition

134 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

9) A patient has a Class III molar relationship. What is the best camouflage extraction?

Extract upper second premolar and lower first premolar

No extraction

Extract upper first premolar and lower first premolar

Extract lower first premolar

135 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

10) A patient has a protruded archwire causing ulceration. What is the best management?

Apply wax

Reassure the patient

Prescribe pain medication

Clip the wire

136 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

1) A 3-year-old patient has multiple surface caries. What is the best restoration?

SSC

Composite

RMGIC

Amalgam

137 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

2) A child has irreversible pulpitis in a primary tooth with extensive caries. What X-ray is needed?

Panoramic

Periapical

OPG

Bitewing

138 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

3) A pediatric patient has multiple surface caries in a primary molar. What is the best restoration?

Stainless steel crown (SSC)

GIC

Composite

Amalgam

139 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

4) A pediatric patient with an SSC complains of pain and bleeding. The SSC is 2 mm high, and X-rays show overhangs. What is the cause?

Improper SSC size

Normal adjustment

Inadequate occlusal reduction

Poor cementation

140 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

5) A pediatric patient has caries on the lateral incisor incisally and proximally. What is the best esthetic restoration?

Composite

GIC

Resin-faced SSC

SSC

141 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

6) What makes primary tooth extraction difficult?

Long, convergent roots

Short, divergent roots

Short, convergent roots

Long, divergent roots

142 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

7) What is the first step when child abuse is suspected?

Documentation and report

No action needed

Reassure and review again

Confront the parents

143 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

8) A 2-year-old caries-free child uses a bottle at night. What fluoride regimen is recommended?

Smear size fluoridated toothpaste

Pea size non-fluoridated toothpaste

Pea size fluoridated toothpaste

Smear size non-fluoridated toothpaste

144 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

9) After placing PRR and pit and fissure sealants, when should the patient return for follow-up?

2 years

12 months

6 months

3 months

145 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

10) A child’s family has hurt his feelings. What type of abuse is this?

Physical abuse

Emotional abuse

Sexual abuse

Neglect

146 / 200

Category: Periodontics

1) A patient has isolated recession in lower incisors and a high frenum. What is the treatment?

Free gingival graft and frenectomy

Gingivectomy

Connective tissue graft and frenectomy

Observation

147 / 200

Category: Periodontics

2) A diabetic patient with HbA1c of 9 and 50% horizontal bone loss. What is the management?

Extraction

Antibiotics only

SRP + doxycycline

Refer to doctor

148 / 200

Category: Periodontics

3) A patient has 4 mm recession and 3 mm pocket depth. What does this indicate?

7 mm attachment loss

7 mm pseudo pocket

2 mm pocket depth

4 mm attachment loss

149 / 200

Category: Periodontics

4) What is the ideal activation angle during scaling and root planning?

Less than insertion angle

Less than 45°

More than 90°

45-90°

150 / 200

Category: Periodontics

5) What is the position of the shank during scaling?

Parallel to long axis

45 degrees

Parallel to the surface being treated

75 degrees

151 / 200

Category: Periodontics

6) A patient wants crowns but has bleeding and pocket depths of 2-3 mm. What is the appropriate action?

SRP and polishing

Polishing and prep

SRP every 4 weeks

Observation

152 / 200

Category: Periodontics

7) A patient has pain and grade 1 mobility after a mesial restoration. Radiographs show funneling in the PDL. What is the diagnosis?

Primary occlusal trauma

Acute trauma

Secondary occlusal trauma

Chronic trauma

153 / 200

Category: Periodontics

8) How deep can toothbrush bristles penetrate the sulcus?

0.5 - 1 mm

1 - 2 mm

3 - 4 mm

2 - 3 mm

154 / 200

Category: Periodontics

9) A patient on Dilantin has gingival enlargement and heavy plaque. What is the initial management?

Gingivectomy

Antibiotics

Scaling

Consult physician to change medication

155 / 200

Category: Periodontics

10) A patient has PD of 3-5 mm and 20% bone loss. What is the diagnosis?

Generalized stage II grade B

Localized stage II grade B

Localized stage I grade A

Generalized stage I grade A

156 / 200

Category: Periodontics

11) A patient has class I furcation involvement with 4 mm depth and bleeding. What is the treatment?

Extraction

Scaling and root planning with odontoplasty

Gingivectomy

Flap surgery

157 / 200

Category: Periodontics

12) A patient has sensitivity, inadequate keratinized tissue, and high frenum attachment. What is the treatment?

Frenectomy + FGG

FGG

Frenectomy + CTG

CTG

158 / 200

Category: Periodontics

13) Which tooth is most difficult to access during furcation treatment?

1st max molar

1st mand molar

2nd max molar

2nd mand molar

159 / 200

Category: Periodontics

14) What are the periodontal effects of smoking?

Increased BOP

Increased gingival inflammation and decreased BOP

Decreased gingival inflammation and BOP

No effect

160 / 200

Category: Periodontics

15) A young adult with orthodontic treatment has gingival enlargement. What is the first step?

Gingivectomy

Antibiotics

Observation

SRP and re-evaluation

161 / 200

Category: Periodontics

16) A tooth is displaced 1 mm buccally. What is the Miller classification of mobility?

Class 3

Class 1

Class 4

Class 2

162 / 200

Category: Periodontics

17) What type of curette has an offset angle?

Chisel

Hoe

Universal

Gracey

163 / 200

Category: Periodontics

18) Which bacteria are associated with periodontitis?

S. mutans

T. forsythia

P. gingivalis

A.A

164 / 200

Category: Periodontics

19) Which type of flap is good for biopsy and closed by primary intention?

Elliptical

Semilunar

Envelope

Triangular

165 / 200

Category: Periodontics

20) A patient has sensitivity, caries, and an impacted molar. What is the treatment sequence?

Scaling, restoration, extraction

Extraction, scaling, restoration

Restoration, scaling, extraction

Antibiotics

166 / 200

Category: Implant

1) What is the minimum age for a dental implant?

16

20

21

18

167 / 200

Category: Implant

2) Why is D4 bone the worst for implants?

High occlusion

High vascularity

Poor bone density

Lack of primary stability

168 / 200

Category: Implant

3) What injury can occur if no graft is done before placing an implant?

Mentalis nerve

Incisive nerve

Mental foramen

Inferior alveolar nerve

169 / 200

Category: Implant

4) What is the largest implant size for a 7 mm mesiodistal space?

5

6

7

4

170 / 200

Category: Implant

5) What is the minimum interocclusal space for a screwed implant?

6 mm

4 mm

7 mm

5 mm

171 / 200

Category: Implant

6) What is the recall interval after the first year for a stable implant?

3-4 months

1-2 months

7-8 months

5-6 months

172 / 200

Category: Implant

7) How many implants are needed for a 14 mm interdental space?

Two implants

Four implants

One implant

Three implants

173 / 200

Category: Implant

8) What is the treatment for a 4 mm interarch distance in tooth #14?

Bone graft

Screw-retained implant

Return to surgeon

Cemented crown

174 / 200

Category: Implant

9) What impression coping is used for tissue configuration after healing?

Healing abutment

Transfer pin

Customized impression coping

Open tray coping

175 / 200

Category: Implant

10) How to manage bone loss around an implant?

Change crown

Remove cement

Bone graft

Remove implant

176 / 200

Category: Implant

11) What should be done if an X-ray shows a long impression coping?

Open tray impression

Custom coping

Plastic coping

Closed tray impression

177 / 200

Category: Implant

12) What is responsible for the emergence profile?

Custom coping

Transfer pin

Implant analog

Healing abutment

178 / 200

Category: Implant

13) What is the implant length for tooth #15 with 12 mm bone height?

13 mm

12 mm

11 mm

10 mm

179 / 200

Category: Implant

14) What causes a black line around an implant in the upper lateral?

Labial position

Shadow of titanium abutment

Poor hygiene

Excess cement

180 / 200

Category: Implant

15) Why is a 17-year-old patient experiencing implant mobility?

Underdeveloped jaw

Excess cement

Loose screw

Poor hygiene

181 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

1) A doctor sees a lost patient but doesn’t help. What did they violate?

Beneficence

Justice

Non-maleficence

Autonomy

182 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

2) What is used in dental clinics for sterilization?

Dry heat

Ethylene oxide

Steam pressure

UV light

183 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

3) A 75-year-old patient is told extraction and FPD are the only options. What did the doctor violate?

Treatment quality

Autonomy

Informed consent

Non-maleficence

184 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

4) How should a prosthesis be disinfected before sending it to the lab?

Glutaraldehyde

Steam autoclave

Dry heat

UV light

185 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

5) A patient delays treatment for 6 months after signing consent. What should you do?

Proceed with treatment

Do nothing

Refuse treatment

Repeat and get new consent

186 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

6) A doctor passes by a patient without helping. What did they violate?

Justice

Non-maleficence

Beneficence

Autonomy

187 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

7) What is the most common bacteria in waterlines?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

E. coli

Pseudomonas

Legionella

188 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

8) An assistant discusses a patient with a friend. What did she violate?

Autonomy

Beneficence

Patient privacy

Non-maleficence

189 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

9) A file separates during instrumentation but is bypassed. What type of error is this?

Extreme miss

System failure

Miss

Near miss

190 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

10) How should a biopsy be sent to the lab?

Put in a sealed container

Put in a sterile bag

Put in a biohazard-labeled bag

Put in a regular bag

191 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

11) A cleaner gets a sharps injury from a needle covered in a bloody swab. What type of failure is this?

System failure

Latent failure

Active failure

Human error

192 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

12) A doctor doesn’t inform staff about a COVID patient. What did they violate?

Colleagues

Infection control

Autonomy

Community

193 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

13) A patient cannot afford a crown but wants to save the tooth. What should you do?

Dismiss the patient

Offer other options

Proceed with covered procedures

Do a pulpectomy

194 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

14) What should you do with an instrument kit with a blue color indicator?

Use it

Report it

Discard it

Return it to CSSD

195 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

15) What is the definition of autonomy?

Right of the state to decide treatment

Right of family to decide treatment

Right of competent adults to make informed decisions

Right of doctors to decide treatment

196 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

16) A 14-year-old wants a dental diamond but her parents refuse. What should you do?

Don’t do it without parental consent

Don’t do it until a parent is present

Give her an alternative

Do it as she wants

197 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

17) A dental assistant gets injured during surgery and develops a fever. What should she do?

Report to HR

Take sick leave

Ignore the injury

Continue working

198 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

18) What is the maximum number of bacteria allowed in waterlines?

500

5000

1000

7000

199 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

19) What is the common route of infection in dental clinics?

Airborne

Direct and indirect contact

Bloodborne

Waterborne

200 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

20) A patient refuses a rubber dam during RCT. What should the clinician do?

Call the police

Politely refuse to continue

Complete treatment with cotton rolls

Refer to another dentist

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