SDLE Mock Test – DentQuiz

Mock Test

SDLE Mock Test

DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction

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The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام.
Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know.

Blueprint

Endodontics : 15%
Restorative : 30%
Prosthodontics : 17.5%
Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 10%
Periodontics and Implant : 17.5%
Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 10%

Please fill in your details to continue

NameEmailPhone Number

1 / 200

Category: Endodontics

1) During RCT, an apex locator makes a sound when inserted. What is happening?

File separation

Apical perforation

Normal

Coronal perforation

2 / 200

Category: Endodontics

2) What is the composition of PCA?

None

EDTA, urea peroxide, glycol

EDTA, CaOH, glycol

EDTA, NaOCl, glycol

3 / 200

Category: Endodontics

3) What is the best treatment for pinpoint pulp exposure?

MTA

GIC

Resin

CaOH liner

4 / 200

Category: Endodontics

4) A tooth was avulsed and kept in milk for 3 hours. What is the management?

No treatment

Extract the tooth

Immerse in 2% sodium fluoride for 20 minutes and splint

Immediately splint with rigid splint

5 / 200

Category: Endodontics

5) Which tooth has a constant number of canals?

Maxillary canine

Maxillary central incisor

Mandibular canine

Mandibular central incisor

6 / 200

Category: Endodontics

6) What material is placed in the clot during revascularization of immature teeth?

MTA

Tribiotic

Gutta-percha

Calcium hydroxide

7 / 200

Category: Endodontics

7) What is the management for primary endo secondary perio?

Perio only

RCT then perio treatment

RCT only

Perio then RCT

8 / 200

Category: Endodontics

8) Which instrument is used for removing pulp tissue?

Pesso reamer

Barber broach

Gates Glidden

Lentulospiral

9 / 200

Category: Endodontics

9) A PA radiograph shows large bone resorption adjacent to tooth #32, which is vital. What is the likely cause?

Endo-Perio

Endo

Perio-Endo

Perio

10 / 200

Category: Endodontics

10) During treatment of tooth #16, a perforation occurs. How is it managed?

MTA

Extraction

Follow-up

Re-RCT

11 / 200

Category: Endodontics

11) A patient presents with pain in tooth 37, which has difficult anatomy on X-ray. What is the best management?

Extraction

RCT

NSAID

Pulpotomy

12 / 200

Category: Endodontics

12) What is the most influential factor for successful reimplantation of an avulsed tooth?

Storage medium

Tetanus

Time

Antibiotic

13 / 200

Category: Endodontics

13) Which dental material requires careful handling due to its caustic nature?

Formocresol

Ferric sulfate

Calcium hydroxide

Sodium hypochlorite

14 / 200

Category: Endodontics

14) A tooth had RCT, failed, and was re-treated. An apical abscess is present. What is the prognosis?

Questionable

Good

Poor

Fair

15 / 200

Category: Endodontics

15) What type of trauma is associated with a metallic sound?

Subluxation

Extrusion

Lateral luxation

Intrusion

16 / 200

Category: Endodontics

16) Which tooth is most difficult to anesthetize in symptomatic irreversible pulpitis?

Lower molar

Upper premolar

Lower premolar

Upper molar

17 / 200

Category: Endodontics

17) What is the difference between crown-down and step-back techniques?

More tissue removal

Less time

Fewer instruments

Coronal flare and low torsional flexure

18 / 200

Category: Endodontics

18) A pink color on the crown indicates what?

Pulpitis

External resorption

Internal resorption

Necrosis

19 / 200

Category: Endodontics

19) What is the recommended isolation method for RCT in an asthmatic patient?

Rubber dam then cotton rolls

Rubber dam

Cotton rolls

Cotton rolls then rubber dam

20 / 200

Category: Endodontics

20) What is the best prognosis for horizontal root fractures?

Coronal

Cervical

Middle

Apical

21 / 200

Category: Endodontics

21) What percentage of gutta-percha is in a GP cone?

40%

50%

20%

30%

22 / 200

Category: Endodontics

22) Which avulsion scenario has the poorest prognosis?

Avulsion >60 min open apex

Avulsion <60 min open apex

Avulsion <60 min closed apex

Avulsion >60 min closed apex

23 / 200

Category: Endodontics

23) What causes brown precipitation in endodontic treatment?

EDTA with sodium hypochlorite

MTA with saline

Chx with sodium hypochlorite

Calcium hydroxide with saline

24 / 200

Category: Endodontics

24) A tooth with a 7mm pocket and no pain. What is the treatment?

Apical surgery

Amputation

Extraction

Non-surgical RCT

25 / 200

Category: Endodontics

25) What type of injury involves tooth displacement buccally, lingually, mesially, or distally?

Lateral luxation

Intrusion

Extrusion

Subluxation

26 / 200

Category: Endodontics

26) What is the best treatment for a 9-year-old with 3-4mm intrusion?

Extraction

Follow-up

RCT

Ortho reposition

27 / 200

Category: Endodontics

27) A patient with a 7 mm deep pocket in the mesiobuccal root of a lower molar with endo treatment. What is the likely diagnosis?

Localized periodontitis

Periapical abscess

Cracked tooth

Vertical root fracture

28 / 200

Category: Endodontics

28) Which instrument has an active cutting tip?

H file

Barbed broach

K file

Reamer

29 / 200

Category: Endodontics

29) What is the best analgesic for post-endodontic pain?

Acetaminophen

NSAID

Opioids

None

30 / 200

Category: Endodontics

30) A tooth with deep caries and normal pulp is sensitive to percussion but not tender. Upon caries removal, pulp exposure occurs. What is the diagnosis?

Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical tissue

Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis with normal apical tissue

Necrotic pulp

Reversible pulpitis

31 / 200

Category: Restorative

1) How should a bevel be placed in a class I preparation without burs?

Bevel hatchet

Enamel hatchet

Excavator

Chisel

32 / 200

Category: Restorative

2) Which type of GIC is used for cementation?

Type 4

Type 2

Type 1

Type 3

33 / 200

Category: Restorative

3) An older patient presents with thickening around the apex of a tooth. What is the cause?

Infection

Trauma

Physiologic remodeling

Cementum deposition

34 / 200

Category: Restorative

4) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best action?

Restoration

Fluoride gel

Fluoride varnish

Emphasize oral hygiene instructions

35 / 200

Category: Restorative

5) What happens when filler content in a restoration is increased?

Increased shrinkage

Increased wear resistance

Increased hydrophilicity

Decreased strength

36 / 200

Category: Restorative

6) A broken tooth cannot accommodate a rubber dam. What is the best alternative?

Cotton roll isolation

No isolation

Use a clamp

Place on adjacent teeth

37 / 200

Category: Restorative

7) In a deep cavity, where should decay removal begin to preserve pulp health?

Dentin first

Axial wall first

Enamel first

Floor first

38 / 200

Category: Restorative

8) A patient wants to replace an amalgam restoration with 2 mm of remaining dentin. What liner should be used?

GIC

No liner

Calcium hydroxide

RMGIC

39 / 200

Category: Restorative

9) Which instrument is used to finish the buccal and lingual proximal walls?

Gingival margin trimmer

Excavator

Enamel hatchet

Chisel

40 / 200

Category: Restorative

10) What is atraumatic restorative treatment (ART)?

Surgical intervention

Microabrasion

Conservative treatment

No treatment

41 / 200

Category: Restorative

11) What is the dentist's position when working on teeth #41 and #31?

12 o'clock

7 o'clock

9 o'clock

11 o'clock

42 / 200

Category: Restorative

12) A deep carious lesion is indicated for extraction. Which of the following criteria helps in choosing the type of extraction?

3 site caries

Percussion

Pulpal pain

Gingival swelling in buccal

43 / 200

Category: Restorative

13) What type of dentin forms when odontoblasts are disrupted by strong caries?

Tertiary reactionary dentin

Primary dentin

Secondary dentin

Reparative dentin

44 / 200

Category: Restorative

14) Why is acid etching done before restorative treatment?

Improve adhesion

Prevent thermal exchange

Prevent microleakage

All of the above

45 / 200

Category: Restorative

15) What is the best restoration for caries extending to the DEJ?

Amalgam

Composite

GIC

RMGIC

46 / 200

Category: Restorative

16) Which impression material can be poured after one day?

Zinc oxide

PVS

Alginate

Polysulfide

47 / 200

Category: Restorative

17) What type of collagen is present in the pulp during development?

Type 4

Type 1

Type 2

Type 3

48 / 200

Category: Restorative

18) A 15-year-old patient has extensive proximal caries. What is the best treatment plan?

Cast metal crowns

Caries excavation and temporization

Amalgam restorations

Diet control

49 / 200

Category: Restorative

19) A patient complains of food impaction after an amalgam restoration. What is the likely cause?

Occlusal trauma

Lack of embrasure

Open contact

Overhanging restoration

50 / 200

Category: Restorative

20) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used?

GIC

RMGIC

Zinc oxide

Calcium hydroxide

51 / 200

Category: Restorative

21) When should polysulfide impressions be poured?

Immediately

1 hour

15 minutes

1 week

52 / 200

Category: Restorative

22) How does GIC compare to composite in terms of thermal expansion?

Similar to dentin

Similar to enamel

Poor coefficient of expansion

Excellent coefficient of expansion

53 / 200

Category: Restorative

23) What is the purpose of a liner in a casting ring?

Increase strength

Reduce porosity

Prevent shrinkage

Allow uniform expansion

54 / 200

Category: Restorative

24) What is the fourth dental material category besides polymers, metals, and porcelain?

Cement

Composite

Alginate

Stone

55 / 200

Category: Restorative

25) Which cement requires slow mixing?

Resin

GIC

Zinc polycarboxylate

Zinc phosphate

56 / 200

Category: Restorative

26) What type of wear is indicated by islands of amalgam surrounded by worn tooth structure?

Abfraction

Erosion

Abrasion

Attrition

57 / 200

Category: Restorative

27) A patient wants to place a final crown with temporary cement to evaluate sensitivity. Which cement is best?

Non-eugenol zinc oxide

Resin cement

Glass ionomer

Zinc phosphate

58 / 200

Category: Restorative

28) Which tooth is most prone to caries?

Maxillary second molar

Maxillary first molar

Mandibular first molar

Mandibular second molar

59 / 200

Category: Restorative

29) What should be done if composite is unavailable for an MOD cavity?

Temporary restoration

No treatment

GIC restoration

Amalgam restoration

60 / 200

Category: Restorative

30) What is the anatomical difference between central incisors before and after avulsion?

Longer mesial slope

Distal crown rounding

Longer distal slope

Mesial crown rounding

61 / 200

Category: Restorative

31) A 15-year-old patient with pain and radiolucency under #46 wants extraction, but the mother is unsure. What is the best action?

Ask for parental consent

Do the patient's desire

No treatment

Refuse extraction

62 / 200

Category: Restorative

32) What are the components of preventive resin restorations?

Componer

Glass ionomer

Composite

RMGI

63 / 200

Category: Restorative

33) Which factor indicates a high risk of caries?

Open contact

Fluorosis

Good oral hygiene

Using miswak

64 / 200

Category: Restorative

34) What is the strongest phase in amalgam?

Beta

Gamma

Gamma 2

Gamma 1

65 / 200

Category: Restorative

35) Which restoration for posterior teeth is both aesthetic and durable?

RMGI

Low filler composite

Amalgam

High filler composite

66 / 200

Category: Restorative

36) A patient with bruxism has a fractured amalgam. What is the best treatment option?

Ceramic inlay

No treatment

Cast restoration

Composite

67 / 200

Category: Restorative

37) What are the features of active caries?

None

Discolored and pitted

Matte, soft, and chalky

Shiny, hard, and smooth

68 / 200

Category: Restorative

38) Which material undergoes an acid-base reaction during setting?

RMGI

Componer

Glass ionomer

Composite

69 / 200

Category: Restorative

39) A patient with attrition has severe cervical pain. What is the likely cause?

Cracked tooth

Irreversible pulpitis

Dentin hypersensitivity

Reversible pulpitis

70 / 200

Category: Restorative

40) Which approach is more esthetic for a class III restoration?

Facial

Lingual

Both

None

71 / 200

Category: Restorative

41) A deep class II restoration shows good margins but bone loss in the area. What is affected?

Periodontium

Pulp

Enamel

Dentin

72 / 200

Category: Restorative

42) What is the best dentist position for treating teeth #41 and #31?

11 o'clock

7 o'clock

9 o'clock

12 o'clock

73 / 200

Category: Restorative

43) A patient has a small amalgam restoration in #16 that needs replacement. What is the best option?

Gold

Composite

Cast ceramic

Glass ionomer

74 / 200

Category: Restorative

44) What happens during syneresis and imbibition of alginate?

Shrinkage

Expansion

Loss of water (syneresis)

Absorption of water (imbibition)

75 / 200

Category: Restorative

45) What happens when zinc phosphate cement is used for cementation?

Pulp necrosis

Discoloration

Allergic reaction

Sensitivity

76 / 200

Category: Restorative

46) What is the characteristic setting reaction of PVS?

Polymerization

Cross-linking

Addition

Condensation

77 / 200

Category: Restorative

47) What causes gypsum to break during flasking?

Exothermic reaction

Shrinkage

Insufficient bulk

Improper mixing

78 / 200

Category: Restorative

48) A patient experiences severe pain during in-office bleaching. What is the likely cause?

Gingival bleaching

Light intensity

High pH of bleaching agent

Tooth sensitivity

79 / 200

Category: Restorative

49) What increases the retention of pit and fissure sealants?

Air abrasion

No treatment

Acid etching

Bonding agent

80 / 200

Category: Restorative

50) What is the term for the change in length per unit length of a material as temperature changes?

Thermal conductivity

Thermal resistance

Thermal coefficient of expansion

Thermal diffusivity

81 / 200

Category: Restorative

51) What is the most important consideration when replacing an amalgam restoration in a patient with a deep bite?

Pulp health

Occlusal adjustment

Material choice

Impression technique

82 / 200

Category: Restorative

52) Which impression material is reversible?

Alginate

Polysulfide

PVS

Agar

83 / 200

Category: Restorative

53) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the most suitable action?

Reinforce oral hygiene instructions

Fluoride gel

Restoration

Fluoride varnish

84 / 200

Category: Restorative

54) What happens if alginate is left under a wet towel for an hour before pouring?

Imbibition

Shrinkage

Expansion

Syneresis

85 / 200

Category: Restorative

55) How should carbide burs be evaluated for survival and effectiveness?

Low speed before tooth contact

High speed before tooth contact

Low speed out of oral cavity

High speed out of oral cavity

86 / 200

Category: Restorative

56) What causes a grainy impression when moisture contaminates the powder?

Distorted impression

Chalky cast

Grainy impression

Tear in impression

87 / 200

Category: Restorative

57) What is the purpose of applying a separating medium?

To remove gutta-percha

To clean the canal

For cement

To isolate the tooth

88 / 200

Category: Restorative

58) Condensation of amalgam for 8 minutes results in:

No change

Amalgam will set

Easy to carve

Residual mercury increases

89 / 200

Category: Restorative

59) A patient experiences pain during tooth preparation, even on the enamel layer. What is the likely cause?

Enamel lamellae

Rods

Enamel spindle

Enamel tufts

90 / 200

Category: Restorative

60) Which cement requires slow mixing to reach the desired consistency?

Resin

Zinc phosphate

Polycarboxylate

GIC

91 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

1) During impression for a PFM crown, there is a void in the facial surface margin. What should be done?

Use a different impression material

Fill the void with wax

Remake impression

Proceed with the impression

92 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

2) For a vital tooth, which material should be avoided?

Bis Acrylic

Poly Eth Meth

Poly Meth Meth

Poly Vin Meth Meth

93 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

3) An FPD with gold has rocking during metal try-in. What should be done?

Adjust the occlusion

Re-cement the FPD

Remake the FPD

Sectioning and soldering

94 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

4) Gutta percha length is 22 mm. What is the length of the post?

22-20 mm

20-18 mm

19-17 mm

21-19 mm

95 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

5) A lateral incisor is fractured at the gingival level with a long root. What is the best treatment?

Extraction

Gingivectomy

Extrusion + osseous surgery

Post, core, and crown

96 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

6) A patient wants to replace #12 with a 3-unit bridge from #11-13. During metal try-in, there is a bubble. What does this mean?

Poor marginal fit

Poor fit of the retainer

Fractured connector

Increased luting space of #11

97 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

7) A patient has an FPD with roughness and dental floss breaks. What is the management?

Modify the open margin on the dental chair

Re-cement the FPD

Modify the open margin in the lab

Remake the FPD

98 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

8) What type of occlusion is best for full-mouth rehabilitation?

Bilateral

Canine guidance

Group function

None of the above

99 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

9) What is the purpose of a post in a restored tooth?

Reduce cost

Provide core retention

Improve esthetics

Provide canal retention

100 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

10) What is the best core material for a ceramic crown?

Zirconia

Gold

Amalgam

Composite

101 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

11) A patient complains of food accumulation and bleeding around a PFM crown. What is the management?

Deep scaling and root planing

Proceed with endodontic treatment through PFM crown

Suction the crown and assess restorability

Combined endodontic and periodontal surgery

102 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

12) A patient wants to replace teeth #14 and #15. What is the best bridge design?

5-unit non-rigid connector

5-unit fixed-fixed

6-unit

4-unit (16, 13)

103 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

13) A mesiolingual gold onlay causes deflection during closing. What is the problem?

Centric relation

Working

Protrusive

Centric stop

104 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

14) What is the first step in preparing lithium disilicate for cementation?

Sandblasting

Cleaning with alcohol

Hydrofluoric acid

Phosphoric acid

105 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

15) A patient complains of opacity in the incisal third of a crown. What is the cause?

Insufficient opaque layer

Over-contouring

Poor bonding

One-plane preparation

106 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

16) What is the role of flux in soldering?

Reduce melting temp of solder

Improve flow of solder

Act as separating medium

Prevent oxidation

107 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

17) What instrument is used for beveling during onlay preparation?

Gingival margin trimmer

Carbide bur

Diamond instrument

Chisel

108 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

18) A patient wants to restore 3 missing lower anteriors. The dentist decides on tooth #32 based on what?

Incisal slopes inclined distally

Same mesiodistal width on each side

Tooth is off-center

Bilaterally symmetrical

109 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

19) A patient complains of bad taste and smell after a 3-unit FPD. Bubbles appear in the cervical region of a retainer. What is the cause?

Food debris beneath the pontic

Open margins of the retainer

Connector fracture

Loosening of the retainer

110 / 200

Category: Fixed Prosthodontics

20) A patient with a bridge from #34 to #36 complains of malodor. Bubbles are found under the retainer of #34. What is the cause?

Fractured abutment or retainer

Fractured connector

Food impingement under pontic

Space between abutment and retainer

111 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

1) A patient with Kennedy Class I has an undercut not in the cervical part. What clasp should be used?

Distal rest and mesial I-bar

Mesial rest and distal I-bar

Mesial rest and distal circumferential

Distal rest and mesial circumferential

112 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

2) A patient is missing teeth #35 and #36. Where should the indirect retainer be placed?

No indirect retainer needed

On #45 and #46 embrasure

On #43 and #45

On #45 and #46

113 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

3) A patient has a complete denture with anterior teeth set too far labially. What is the effect?

None of the above

Affects stability

No effect

Improves esthetics

114 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

4) What impression technique is used for a flabby ridge?

Muco-compressive

Mucostatic

Admix

None of the above

115 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

5) A diabetic patient complains of discomfort with an upper RPD. What is the management?

Prescribe insulin

Prescribe acyclovir

Prednisone

Reduction from the fitting surface

116 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

6) A patient is missing teeth #35, #38, and #48. What is the Kennedy classification?

Class 3

Class 1

Class 1 mod 1

Class 2 mod 1

117 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

7) What are the irregular elevations in the middle of the anterior maxilla?

Median raphe

None of the above

Palatal rugae

Residual ridge

118 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

8) A patient has tissue overgrowth near the lower denture. What is the preliminary management?

Trim the irritated part of the denture

Implant overdenture

No action needed

Construct a new denture

119 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

9) A patient with Kennedy Class I RPD has unstable rest seats. What should be done?

Rebase the denture

Change the position of rest seats

Change the denture

Reline the denture

120 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

10) What resists horizontal movement but provides poor vertical support?

Flat palate

U-shaped palate

V-shaped palate

Horseshoe palate

121 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

11) A patient with an immediate denture complains of poor retention after 6-7 months. What is the best treatment?

Replace the denture

Rebase the denture

Adjust the denture

Laboratory reline

122 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

12) A patient with a severely resorbed ridge needs a new mandibular denture. What is the best impression technique?

Mucostatic

Admix

Neutral zone

Selective pressure

123 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

13) A patient with new complete dentures complains of pain and erythema in both ridges. What is the cause?

Premature contact in lateral movement

Insufficient freeway space

None of the above

Insufficient vertical dimension

124 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

14) A patient lost tooth #11 due to trauma and wants immediate replacement. What is the best option?

Implant

No treatment

Fixed bridge

Transitional RPD

125 / 200

Category: Removable Prosthodontics

15) What is attached to a complete overdenture?

Implant

Analog

Locator

Coping

126 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

1) If 75 g of force is used for tipping a central incisor, what force is used for intrusion?

100 g

125 g

75 g

25 g

127 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

2) What appliance is used to retract anterior teeth when space is available?

Facemask

Twin block

Hawley with labial bow

Quad helix

128 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

3) An orthodontic patient has a bulging band causing ulceration. What is the best management?

Remove the appliance

Apply wax

Wait for the next appointment

Cut the band

129 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

4) Which type of occlusion is a contraindication for an anterior bite plane?

Open bite

Normal occlusion

Crossbite

Deep bite

130 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

5) A 4-year-old patient has a mandibular shift when closing the mouth. What is the best management?

Use a functional appliance

Wait for permanent teeth to erupt

Remove interference from canines

No treatment

131 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

6) A mother is concerned about her child’s retruded mandible. What measurement determines mandibular position?

SNB

ANB

SNA

SN-MP

132 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

7) A 2-year-old child sucks their thumb during sleep. What is the best management?

Use a fixed habit-breaking appliance

Defer treatment until age 8

No treatment

Use a removable habit-breaking appliance

133 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

8) What does an increased ANB angle indicate?

Class III

Normal occlusion

Class I

Class II

134 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

9) What is the most common malocclusion?

Class I aligned teeth

Class I crowding

Class III

Class II

135 / 200

Category: Orthodontics

10) A patient with Class II malocclusion and a good facial profile needs correction of deep bite and overjet. What is the best treatment?

Functional appliance

No treatment

Orthognathic surgery

Extract upper first premolars

136 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

1) What makes primary tooth extraction difficult?

Short, convergent roots

Long, divergent roots

Short, divergent roots

Long, convergent roots

137 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

2) A pediatric patient has an ankylosed primary molar and a missing permanent successor. What is the best management?

No treatment

Extract the primary molar

Refer to a specialist

Wait for natural exfoliation

138 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

3) A mother reports her child is on a strict diet and has interproximal caries on lower molars. What is the best restoration?

SSC

Amalgam

GIC

Adhesive resin restoration

139 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

4) A pediatric patient is severely apprehensive and has multiple caries. What is the best management?

SSC

Resin

RMGIC

Composite

140 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

5) What is the most common type of child abuse related to orofacial injuries?

Sexual abuse

Psychological abuse

Neglect

Physical abuse

141 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

6) A pediatric patient with an SSC complains of pain and bleeding. The SSC is 2 mm high, and X-rays show overhangs. What is the cause?

Poor cementation

Normal adjustment

Improper SSC size

Inadequate occlusal reduction

142 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

7) Where is the loop located in a band and loop space maintainer?

On the occlusal surface

At the contact point

On the lingual surface

On the buccal surface

143 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

8) A 3-year-old patient has multiple caries. What is the best management?

GIC

RMGIC

Amalgam

Composite

144 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

9) A 9-year-old patient has insufficient arch size in the mandible. Which tooth is most likely malpositioned?

Second premolar

First premolar

Lateral incisor

Canine

145 / 200

Category: Pedodontics

10) A pediatric patient with an SSC complains of pain and bleeding. The SSC is 2 mm high, and X-rays show overhangs. What is the cause?

Poor cementation

Inadequate occlusal reduction

Normal adjustment

Improper SSC size

146 / 200

Category: Periodontics

1) A patient is unhappy with their smile, has a short clinical crown, and a 12 mm sulcus depth. What is the treatment?

Gingivectomy

Scaling

Ortho extrusion

Crown lengthening

147 / 200

Category: Periodontics

2) What is the treatment sequence for a tooth needing endo, ortho extrusion, and a crown?

Ortho extrusion, endo, crown

Endo, crown, ortho extrusion

Crown, endo, ortho extrusion

Endo, ortho extrusion, crown

148 / 200

Category: Periodontics

3) A patient has grade 1 mobility in lower teeth, calculus, and PD of 5 mm. What is the treatment?

Extraction

Scaling and root planning

Antibiotics

Splinting

149 / 200

Category: Periodontics

4) A patient has bleeding during brushing and probing. What stage of inflammation is this?

Plasma cell

Leukocyte T

Neutrophil

Leukocyte B

150 / 200

Category: Periodontics

5) What is the grade of fremitus when movement is palpable but not visible?

Grade 4

Grade 3

Grade 2

Grade 1

151 / 200

Category: Periodontics

6) A 20-year-old female needs crown lengthening on #43 with 2 mm keratinized gingiva. What type of flap is used?

Semilunar flap

Coronally positioned flap

Apically positioned flap

Connective tissue graft

152 / 200

Category: Periodontics

7) What is the sequence after RCT for a tooth needing crown lengthening?

Post/core, crown lengthening, crown

Cast post/core, ortho extrusion, crown

Crown lengthening, post/core, crown

Ortho extrusion, post/core, crown

153 / 200

Category: Periodontics

8) What is the ideal activation angle during scaling and root planning?

Less than 45°

Less than insertion angle

More than 90°

45-90°

154 / 200

Category: Periodontics

9) What happens to the interdental papilla when teeth are moved apart by orthodontics?

Becomes fibrous

Splits and forms deep pockets

Disappears

Adapts to the bone

155 / 200

Category: Periodontics

10) A patient has isolated recession in lower incisors and a high frenum. What is the treatment?

Free gingival graft and frenectomy

Observation

Gingivectomy

Connective tissue graft and frenectomy

156 / 200

Category: Periodontics

11) A patient with grade I furcation involvement and normal probing depths. What is the treatment?

Root resection

Odontoplasty

GTR

Root coverage

157 / 200

Category: Periodontics

12) A clinical picture shows a periodontal abscess with pus discharge. What is the treatment?

Incision and drainage

Extraction

RCT

Observe

158 / 200

Category: Periodontics

13) What is the position of the shank during scaling?

Parallel to long axis

45 degrees

Parallel to the surface being treated

75 degrees

159 / 200

Category: Periodontics

14) How much bone loss is required to appear on radiographs?

10-20%

50-70%

30-50%

20-30%

160 / 200

Category: Periodontics

15) A patient has pain and grade 1 mobility after a mesial restoration. Radiographs show funneling in the PDL. What is the diagnosis?

Chronic trauma

Secondary occlusal trauma

Primary occlusal trauma

Acute trauma

161 / 200

Category: Periodontics

16) A diabetic patient lost all her mobile teeth. What is the cause?

Caries

Periodontitis

Trauma

Systemic disease

162 / 200

Category: Periodontics

17) Which statement is less likely correct about smoking and periodontal disease?

Smoking causes imbalance between bacteria and host response

Smokers have more red and orange complex bacteria

Smoking decreases inflammation

Smokers have more plaque

163 / 200

Category: Periodontics

18) A patient has 6 mm from CEJ to the base of the pocket. What does this indicate?

2 mm pocket depth, 4 mm attachment loss

6 mm attachment loss

6 mm pseudo pocket

4 mm pocket depth, 2 mm attachment loss

164 / 200

Category: Periodontics

19) A heavy smoker is defined as someone who smokes at least how many cigarettes per day?

30 cigarettes

40 cigarettes

10 cigarettes

20 cigarettes

165 / 200

Category: Periodontics

20) What is the term for interproximal correction during perio surgery with vertical defects?

Radical

Flap elevation

Apical repositioning

Interproximal flattening

166 / 200

Category: Implant

1) What is the best option for a diabetic patient with missing teeth?

Removable

Implant

Fixed

Can’t replace

167 / 200

Category: Implant

2) What is the treatment for a mobile distal implant?

Functional load

Remove distal implant

Bone augmentation

Vertical bone graft

168 / 200

Category: Implant

3) What indicates failure of an implant in the posterior maxilla?

High remodeling

Insufficient primary stability

Increased blood supply

High occlusal force

169 / 200

Category: Implant

4) What is the best coping for an aesthetic anterior implant?

Healing abutment

Customized coping impression

Transfer pin

Open tray coping

170 / 200

Category: Implant

5) What is shown in the picture of an implant hybrid?

Healing abutment

Implant hybrid

Transfer pin

Custom coping

171 / 200

Category: Implant

6) What is shown in the picture of an implant analog?

Implant analog

Healing abutment

Custom coping

Transfer pin

172 / 200

Category: Implant

7) What is the normal bone loss around an implant in the first year?

2-2.5 mm

0.5-1 mm

3-3.5 mm

1-1.5 mm

173 / 200

Category: Implant

8) What is the best treatment for a 4 mm interocclusal space?

Extract and place deeper

Screw-retained crown

Submerge implant

Cement-retained crown

174 / 200

Category: Implant

9) What is the minimum age for a dental implant?

20

16

18

21

175 / 200

Category: Implant

10) What is the treatment for a 5 mm space in tooth #14?

Cemented crown implant

Maryland bridge

FPD 13,15

Screw-retained implant

176 / 200

Category: Implant

11) What is the minimum space for a cemented crown on a central incisor?

5-6 mm

9-10 mm

7-8 mm

4-5 mm

177 / 200

Category: Implant

12) What causes numbness after implant placement?

Loose screw

Poor hygiene

Excess cement

Neurovascular bundle interference

178 / 200

Category: Implant

13) How often should a patient visit in the first year after implant placement?

Every month

Every 3 months

Every 2 months

Every 6 months

179 / 200

Category: Implant

14) What is the treatment for a 4 mm interarch distance in tooth #14?

Bone graft

Cemented crown

Return to surgeon

Screw-retained implant

180 / 200

Category: Implant

15) What is the long-term treatment for a fractured post and core in tooth #21?

Ortho extrusion

Maryland bridge

Extraction and implant

Redo post and crown

181 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

1) A dentist diagnoses and plans treatment. What role is this?

Health Advocate

Health Advisor

Communicator

Medical Expert

182 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

2) A doctor with contact lenses gets a splash in the eyes. What should they do first?

Remove lenses

Do nothing

Apply eye drops

Wash eyes

183 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

3) Who determines an ethical dilemma?

Patient

Doctor

Research

Family

184 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

4) You explain all complications and instructions to a patient. What principle is this?

Autonomy

Beneficence

Non-maleficence

Veracity

185 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

5) What is the definition of confidentiality?

Sharing information with colleagues

Keeping patient information private

Posting information online

Disclosing information to family

186 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

6) How should a cheek retractor be sterilized?

High-level disinfection

Chemical disinfection

Medium-level disinfection

Heat sterilization

187 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

7) A doctor extracts tooth 25 instead of 14. What type of error is this?

Active failure

Near miss

System failure

Latent failure

188 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

8) A dental assistant gets injured during surgery and develops a fever. What should she do?

Ignore the injury

Take sick leave

Report to HR

Continue working

189 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

9) A patient cannot afford a crown but wants to save the tooth. What should you do?

Proceed with covered procedures

Do a pulpectomy

Offer other options

Dismiss the patient

190 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

10) A resident fears a patient won’t consent to third molar extraction if told about complications. What should they do?

Tell the family

Refer to another dentist

Inform the patient

Proceed without informing

191 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

11) Which orthodontic instruments can be sterilized in an autoclave?

Impression tray

Rubber dam

Ortho plier

Alginate

192 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

12) How should instruments be cleaned in a sink?

Dry

Flat

Partly immersed

Fully immersed

193 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

13) What container should be used for an extracted tooth with amalgam?

Biohazardous waste

Regular waste

Infectious waste

Sharps container

194 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

14) A patient wants to remove sound amalgam restorations due to perceived health risks. What should you do?

Proceed with removal

Refuse treatment

Refer to another dentist

Explain risks and benefits

195 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

15) A patient refuses to hear side effects but is medically fit. What should you do?

Refuse treatment

Take consent and explain side effects

Take consent from her son

Proceed without explaining

196 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

16) What causes corrosion of carbide burs?

Chemical disinfection

UV light

Dry heat

Autoclave

197 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

17) Gloves tear during surgery. What should the doctor do?

Wash with water

Change gloves

Use alcohol hand rub

Wash with soap and water

198 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

18) A 75-year-old patient is told extraction and FPD are the only options. What did the doctor violate?

Autonomy

Non-maleficence

Informed consent

Treatment quality

199 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

19) A doctor passes by a patient without helping. What did they violate?

Non-maleficence

Justice

Beneficence

Autonomy

200 / 200

Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety

20) A restorable tooth needs RCT, but the patient and mother refuse and want extraction. What should you do?

Get a second opinion

Perform RCT against their wishes

Refuse to extract

Take informed consent and proceed with extraction

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