SDLE MCQ SDLE Mock Test Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 15% Restorative : 30% Prosthodontics : 17.5% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 10% Periodontics and Implant : 17.5% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 10% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) How long should calcium hydroxide be placed in the canal for antimicrobial effect? 3 days 24 hours 2 weeks 4 weeks Calcium hydroxide requires 2 weeks for optimal antimicrobial effect. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) Why might gutta-percha be over-extended during obturation? Short root Poor technique No apical stop Over-instrumentation Lack of an apical stop can lead to over-extension. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) During pulpotomy, if bleeding does not stop and becomes darker red, what does this indicate? Continue pulpotomy Monitor Extraction Pulpectomy Uncontrolled bleeding indicates the need for pulpectomy. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) During access, a pulp stone is observed. What is the next step? Referral to endodontist Extraction Continue treatment Remove the pulp stone Pulp stones may complicate treatment, requiring specialist intervention. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) A patient has an endo-perio lesion with deep pockets. What is the management? Start perio Extraction Start endo and follow up Start endo then perio Endo should be addressed first in endo-perio lesions. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) A patient with a gingival abscess took antibiotics. What is the likely pulp condition? Irreversible pulpitis Reversible pulpitis Hyperemic pulp Obliterated pulp Antibiotics may not resolve irreversible pulpitis. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) A vital tooth with periapical radiolucency is likely due to: Trauma Perio origin True combined lesion Endo origin Periapical radiolucency in vital teeth is often periodontal in origin. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) A file broke in the apical part of the mesial root during endo. Bypassing and retrieval failed. What is the next step? Apical surgery Retreatment Obturate to the level of the broken file Extraction Obturating to the level of the broken file is a common approach. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) How many roots does tooth #27 have? 1 4 2 3 Tooth #27 typically has 3 roots. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) A 4-year-old with intrusion trauma. What is the likely consequence to the permanent tooth? No effect Devitalization of permanent Root resorption Crown tipped palatally Intrusion can cause the permanent crown to tip palatally. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) What gives MTA its radiopacity? Silica Bismuth oxide Calcium oxide Zinc oxide Bismuth oxide is added to MTA for radiopacity. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) How many roots are expected in tooth #17? 2 4 1 3 Tooth #17 typically has 3 roots. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) What is the ISO diameter of a K-file? 0.1 0.02 2 0.2 K-files have a standardized taper of 0.02. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) A pink color on the crown indicates what? Internal resorption Necrosis Pulpitis External resorption Pink discoloration is a sign of internal resorption. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) A pediatric patient with a necrotic molar and open roots. What is the treatment? Extraction Pulpotomy RCT Apexification Apexification is the treatment for necrotic teeth with open roots. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) Which avulsion scenario has the poorest prognosis? Avulsion >60 min closed apex Avulsion <60 min closed apex Avulsion >60 min open apex Avulsion <60 min open apex closed apex teeth have a poorer prognosis 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) What type of X-ray is best for an avulsed tooth? Bitewing OPG CBCT and 2 PA Occlusal CBCT and periapical X-rays provide detailed information. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) A patient with severe pain, isolated deep pocket, and bone loss distal to #47. What is the management? RCT GTR Extraction Apical surgery Extraction is often the best option for severe pain and bone loss. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) A tooth was avulsed for 30 minutes and kept in milk. What type of splint is recommended? No splint Semi-rigid splint Rigid splint Functional 2-week splint Functional splints allow limited movement for healing. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) A tooth with deep caries and normal pulp is sensitive to percussion but not tender. Upon caries removal, pulp exposure occurs. What is the diagnosis? Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis with normal apical tissue Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical tissue Necrotic pulp Reversible pulpitis Pulp exposure with normal apical tissue indicates asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) Excessive bleeding during cleaning and shaping with a moved stopper indicates what? Overfilling Perforation Fracture Sodium hypochlorite accident Excessive bleeding and a moved stopper suggest perforation. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) What is the composition of PCA? EDTA, NaOCl, glycol EDTA, CaOH, glycol None EDTA, urea peroxide, glycol PCA contains EDTA, urea peroxide, and glycol. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) What is the best method to refine access for a C-shaped canal? #1 round bur #2 round bur 169 L bur Ultrasonic Ultrasonic tips are precise for refining complex canal anatomy. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) What characterizes subluxation? Increased mobility, no displacement Fracture Displacement No mobility, no displacement Subluxation involves increased mobility without displacement. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) Which instrument is used to check canal flaring after preparation? Spreader Patency file Master cone gutta percha Master file Spreaders are used to check canal flaring. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) Which tooth is most difficult to anesthetize in symptomatic irreversible pulpitis? Lower molar Upper molar Upper premolar Lower premolar Lower molars are challenging due to dense bone and nerve anatomy. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) A 13-year-old with an avulsed tooth kept in milk. What is the best management? Reimplant immediately Keep it in milk Extraoral RCT Splint it directly Milk is a suitable medium for preserving the tooth before reimplantation. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) A patient has irreversible pulpitis in tooth #37 and an impacted #38 with a large cyst. What is the first step? Treat #37 and inform the patient No treatment Extract #38 Inform the patient about the cyst Treat the symptomatic tooth first, then address the cyst. 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) A patient has implants in the anterior lower jaw. The adjacent natural tooth is mobile (grade 3) with a very short root and no pain on endo tests. What is the treatment? Perio then endo Perio and follow up Endo immediately and adjunctive Perio Endo and follow up Mobility and short roots suggest periodontal issues; endo is not indicated without symptoms. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) A patient has extruded gutta-percha with no symptoms. What is the management? Follow-up RCT Extraction Surgical RCT If asymptomatic, no intervention is needed. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) A 62-year-old patient has posterior recession and arrested root caries. What is the best treatment? Systemic fluoride Topical fluoride Composite restoration GIC restoration GIC restoration is ideal for arrested root caries due to its adhesion and fluoride release. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) What is the definition of a thixotropic material? A material that contracts with heat A liquid that becomes less viscous under pressure A material that expands with heat A solid that becomes liquid under pressure Thixotropic materials become less viscous and more fluid under repeated pressure. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) A patient complains of food impaction after an amalgam restoration. What is the likely cause? Open contact Lack of embrasure Overhanging restoration Occlusal trauma An open contact allows food to accumulate between teeth, causing impaction. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) What is the definition of resilience? Resistance to fracture Brittleness Hardness Ability to absorb energy Resilience refers to a material's ability to absorb energy without permanent deformation. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) A patient has white spots after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best treatment? Restoration Fluoride varnish Reinforce oral hygiene Fluoride gel Reinforcing oral hygiene helps remineralize the enamel and prevent further decalcification. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) A 60-year-old patient's radiograph shows increased cementum deposition compared to a 25-year-old radiograph. What is the cause? Increased alveolar bone thickness Decreased dentin thickness Decreased enamel thickness Increased cementum deposition Cementum deposition increases with age, leading to thicker cementum layers. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) What is the most important step when replacing amalgam restorations in a patient with a deep overbite? Material choice Occlusal assessment Impression technique Marginal adaptation Occlusal assessment ensures the new restoration fits properly and avoids high points. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best action? Emphasize oral hygiene instructions Restoration Fluoride varnish Fluoride gel Emphasizing oral hygiene helps prevent further decalcification and improves overall dental health. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) What is the fourth dental material category besides polymers, metals, and porcelain? Cement Alginate Composite Stone Composite is a distinct category of dental materials, combining resin and filler particles. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) Which impression material can be poured after one day? Polysulfide Zinc oxide Alginate PVS PVS (polyvinyl siloxane) retains its dimensional stability and can be poured after one day. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) Why is flowable composite preferred over packable composite in preventive resin restorations? Low filler content Less microleakage Better aesthetics Higher strength Flowable composite reduces microleakage due to its ability to adapt to cavity walls. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) How can alginate impression setting be accelerated for a gagging patient? Reduce powder/liquid ratio Hot water Increase mixing time Cold water Hot water accelerates the setting of alginate, reducing the time the impression material is in the mouth. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) What does chronic fluoride exposure primarily affect? Both Dental structures None Skeletal structures Chronic fluoride exposure primarily affects dental structures, causing fluorosis. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) What causes gypsum to break during flasking? Insufficient bulk Improper mixing Shrinkage Exothermic reaction Insufficient bulk of gypsum material leads to weak areas that can break during flasking. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) What is the purpose of applying a separating medium? To isolate the tooth For cement To clean the canal To remove gutta-percha A separating medium prevents cement from sticking to unwanted surfaces during restoration. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) What is the advantage of restoring distal first premolar and mesial second premolar in one visit? Better contact Faster procedure Less cost Improved aesthetics Restoring both teeth in one visit ensures proper contact and occlusion. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) A patient with a recent gold onlay experiences pain with temperature changes. What is the likely cause? Irritation from cement Unpolished restoration Allergy to the restoration Occlusal imbalance Irritation from the cement used can cause sensitivity to temperature changes. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) A crown has a space between the tooth and margin. What can this cause? All of the above Dissolution of cement Prone to caries Crown fracture A space between the crown and tooth can trap debris, leading to caries. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) How should carbide burs be evaluated for survival and effectiveness? Low speed out of oral cavity High speed before tooth contact Low speed before tooth contact High speed out of oral cavity Testing burs at high speed before tooth contact ensures their effectiveness and longevity. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) What is the purpose of a liner in a casting ring? Prevent shrinkage Increase strength Reduce porosity Allow uniform expansion A liner allows uniform expansion of the investment material during casting. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) A patient with bruxism has a fractured amalgam. What is the best treatment option? Ceramic inlay Composite No treatment Cast restoration Cast restoration provides durability and strength, which is ideal for patients with bruxism. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) What is the dentist's position when working on teeth #41 and #31? 9 o'clock 7 o'clock 11 o'clock 12 o'clock The 12 o'clock position provides optimal access to the mandibular anterior teeth. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) Which cement requires slow mixing to reach the desired consistency? Resin Polycarboxylate GIC Zinc phosphate Zinc phosphate requires slow mixing to control the exothermic reaction and achieve proper consistency. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) Which material undergoes an acid-base reaction during setting? Glass ionomer RMGI Composite Componer Glass ionomer sets through an acid-base reaction between the glass powder and polyacid liquid. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) Which cement is most irritating to the pulp? Resin Zinc phosphate GIC Polycarboxylate Zinc phosphate is highly acidic and can irritate the pulp. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) What type of retention is achieved with a stock tray and irreversible hydrocolloid? Chemical Mechanical Micro-mechanical No retention Mechanical retention is achieved through the tray's design and the material's properties. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) What is the strongest phase in amalgam? Gamma Gamma 1 Gamma 2 Beta The gamma phase is the strongest and most stable phase in amalgam. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) An older patient presents with thickening around the apex of a tooth. What is the cause? Cementum deposition Infection Trauma Physiologic remodeling Continuous cementum deposition throughout life can cause thickening around the apex. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) Why is acid etching done before restorative treatment? Prevent thermal exchange Prevent microleakage Improve adhesion All of the above Acid etching creates microporosities in the enamel, improving adhesion and preventing microleakage. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) A dentist uses latex gloves with polysulfide impression material, but the impression doesn’t set. Why? Insufficient mixing time Sulfur contamination Temperature issues Wrong paste proportion Sulfur in latex gloves can inhibit the setting of polysulfide impression material. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) What is the best restoration for a class V cavity in a patient with Sjogren's syndrome? Amalgam GIC Composite RMGIC GIC is ideal for patients with Sjogren's syndrome due to its moisture tolerance and fluoride release. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) A pediatric patient has swelling in the lower lip after extraction. What is the likely cause? Hematoma Masticatory trauma Infection Allergic reaction Masticatory trauma can cause swelling due to irritation of the extraction site. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) What causes reduced vertical dimension in a patient with short teeth? Bone loss Tooth-to-tooth contact Trauma Periodontal disease Tooth-to-tooth contact from attrition leads to reduced vertical dimension over time. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) What is the best restoration for caries extending to the DEJ? Amalgam Composite GIC RMGIC RMGIC is ideal for caries near the DEJ due to its adhesion and fluoride release properties. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) A patient experiences severe pain during in-office bleaching. What is the likely cause? Light intensity Gingival bleaching High pH of bleaching agent Tooth sensitivity Incorrect placement of the rubber dam can cause gingival irritation and pain during bleaching. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) Why does a pin in an amalgam restoration fracture? Incorrect pin placement All of the above Poor material quality Excessive force Pin fracture can result from multiple factors, including placement, force, and material quality. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) A 15-year-old patient has extensive proximal caries. What is the best treatment plan? Amalgam restorations Cast metal crowns Diet control Caries excavation and temporization Excavating caries and temporizing allows for further evaluation and comprehensive treatment planning. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) A patient experiences pain during tooth preparation, even on the enamel layer. What is the likely cause? Enamel spindle Enamel lamellae Enamel tufts Rods Enamel spindles are extensions of odontoblasts into the enamel, which can cause sensitivity. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) A patient wants to place a final crown with temporary cement to evaluate sensitivity. Which cement is best? Glass ionomer Non-eugenol zinc oxide Resin cement Zinc phosphate Non-eugenol zinc oxide is ideal for temporary cementation due to its biocompatibility. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) When should discolored class III restorations be replaced after whitening? Same visit After 2 days No replacement needed After 2 weeks Waiting 2 weeks allows the whitening process to stabilize before replacing restorations. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) A class I restoration with deep caries has 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What base should be used? amalgam Zinc oxide RMGIC GIC RMGIC is ideal for deep caries with minimal dentin thickness due to its strength and fluoride release. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) What is the best method to diagnose interproximal caries? Transillumination Periapical radiograph Bitewing Clinical examination Bitewing radiographs provide clear visualization of interproximal caries. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) A patient has an overhanging amalgam restoration with no symptoms. What is the best action? No treatment Restoration Monitor Remove overhang Removing the overhang prevents periodontal issues and improves oral health. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) What is the characteristic setting reaction of PVS? Polymerization Addition Cross-linking Condensation PVS sets through an addition reaction, which is more stable and predictable. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? RMGIC Zinc oxide Calcium hydroxide GIC GIC provides a protective barrier and adhesion for deep class V restorations. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Zinc oxide RMGIC Calcium hydroxide GIC Calcium hydroxide is ideal for deep class V restorations to protect the pulp. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) What is the dentist's position when working on the buccal of quadrant 1 and palate of quadrant 2? 9 o'clock 11-12 o'clock 6 o'clock 8 o'clock The 9 o'clock position provides optimal access to both the buccal and palatal surfaces. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) What type of wear is indicated by islands of amalgam surrounded by worn tooth structure? Abrasion Abfraction Erosion Attrition Erosion causes localized wear, leaving islands of restorative material like amalgam. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) What are the features of active caries? None Shiny, hard, and smooth Discolored and pitted Matte, soft, and chalky Active caries appear matte, soft, and chalky due to enamel demineralization. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) Why is the axial wall finished with a high-speed bur after RCT and ZnOE obturation? Improve adhesion Reduce sensitivity Remove ZnOE residue Smooth the surface High-speed burs remove residual ZnOE, ensuring a clean surface for the final restoration. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) A deep class II restoration shows good margins but bone loss in the area. What is affected? Pulp Periodontium Enamel Dentin Bone loss indicates periodontal involvement, likely due to the restoration's proximity to the bone. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) In a deep cavity, where should decay removal begin to preserve pulp health? Axial wall first Dentin first Enamel first Floor first Starting with the axial wall reduces the risk of pulp exposure and preserves pulp health. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) What is the canine proportion if the lateral incisor is 5 mm? 5.3 6.4 4.2 3.1 The canine proportion is typically 1.6 times the width of the lateral incisor. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) Which material requires glazing to avoid dehydration? Glass ionomer Amalgam Gold Composite Glass ionomer requires glazing to prevent dehydration and maintain its properties. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) A patient experiences pain when clenching after a class I amalgam restoration. What is the likely cause? High point contact Galvanic reaction Under-contoured restoration Over-contoured restoration High point contact causes pain during clenching due to excessive occlusal pressure. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) What happens when zinc phosphate cement is used for cementation? Sensitivity Discoloration Allergic reaction Pulp necrosis Zinc phosphate can cause pulp necrosis due to its acidic nature and irritation. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) Why is water spray used during cavity preparation? To prevent particle inhalation To decrease dentine heating To clean the field To reduce dentinal fluid movement Water spray cools the tooth, preventing heat-induced damage to the pulp. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) Which restoration for posterior teeth is both aesthetic and durable? Amalgam High filler composite RMGI Low filler composite High filler composite provides strength and aesthetics, making it suitable for posterior teeth. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) Which instrument is used to finish the buccal and lingual proximal walls? Excavator Enamel hatchet Chisel Gingival margin trimmer An enamel hatchet is designed for precise finishing of proximal walls. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) What are the components of preventive resin restorations? RMGI Componer Composite Glass ionomer Preventive resin restorations primarily use composite due to its aesthetic and adhesive properties. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) A patient has a chipped PFM crown. What is the best management? Extract the tooth Fix it in the clinic Re-cement the crown Remake it in the lab Fixing the chipped crown in the clinic is a conservative and immediate solution. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) A patient’s crown keeps falling off. The tooth height is 5 mm. What should be done? Use stronger cement Re-prepare the tooth Add retention grooves Extract the tooth Adding retention grooves improves the mechanical retention of the crown. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) After tooth preparation, a putty index is applied to a wax-up cast, and a temporary is made intraorally. What is this technique called? Indirect-direct Direct None of the above Indirect Direct temporization involves creating the temporary restoration directly in the patient’s mouth. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) What is the healthiest finish line for periodontal health? 2 mm subgingival 1.5 mm subgingival 0.5 mm supragingival 1 mm supragingival A 0.5 mm supragingival finish line is the healthiest for periodontal tissues. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) Where should the contact area be placed for a laminate veneer with lingual extension? One-fourth of the lingual surface and 1 mm away from centric contact One-third of the lingual surface and 1.5 mm away from centric contact Half of the lingual surface and 1 mm away from centric contact One-fourth of the lingual surface and 0.5 mm away from centric contact Placing the contact area one-fourth of the lingual surface and 1 mm away from centric contact ensures proper function and esthetics. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) How long should you etch enamel for veneer cementation? 30 seconds 40 seconds 15 seconds 20 seconds Etching enamel for 20 seconds is sufficient for proper bonding of veneers. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) What is the first step during lithium disilicate cementation? Etching with phosphoric acid Cleaning with alcohol Etching with hydrofluoric acid Sandblasting Etching with hydrofluoric acid is the first step to prepare the lithium disilicate surface for bonding. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) What happens if anterior guidance is neglected in anterior teeth replacement? Esthetic issues Misfit of crown TMJ problems Poor occlusion Neglecting anterior guidance can lead to TMJ problems due to improper occlusal forces. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) A patient has edge-to-edge occlusion. Which type of restoration is best? Full crown Composite veneer Porcelain veneer Onlay A full crown provides the necessary strength and support for edge-to-edge occlusion. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) An ovate pontic causes tissue irritation. What material is most likely the cause? Porcelain Resin Nickel chromium Gold Nickel chromium can cause tissue irritation due to its rigidity and potential for allergic reactions. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) A mesiolingual gold onlay causes deflection during closing. What is the problem? Protrusive Working Centric stop Centric relation Deflection during closing indicates an issue with the centric stop. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) During impression for a PFM crown, there is a void in the facial surface margin. What should be done? Proceed with the impression Use a different impression material Remake impression Fill the void with wax A void in the impression margin requires remaking the impression for accuracy. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) A patient is unsatisfied with the appearance of her 6 anterior PFM crowns. Why? Under contour and opaque Over contour and translucent Under contour and translucent Over contour and opaque Over contouring and opacity can make PFM crowns appear bulky and unnatural. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) A patient’s crown fell three times after cementation. What is the best management? Use different cement Do endo and post & core Extract the tooth Re-cement the crown Endodontic treatment followed by a post and core provides better retention for the crown. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) A photo shows a crown on #46 with open margins mesially and distally. What is the cause? Distortion of final impression Expansion of core Shrinkage during casting Over-tapered preparation Shrinkage during casting can lead to open margins in the final crown. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) A lower molar (#7) with a conservative RCT access and intact walls needs restoration. What is the best option? Prefabricated parallel post with composite core Cast post and core Composite core Amalgam core A prefabricated parallel post with a composite core provides adequate retention and support. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) A patient has a broken post and core. What is the best treatment? Extract the tooth Cementation with GIC Fabricate a new fiber post Re-cement the post and core A new fiber post provides better retention and support for the crown. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) What is the purpose of a post in a restored tooth? Provide canal retention Reduce cost Provide core retention Improve esthetics The primary purpose of a post is to provide retention for the core material. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) In a PFM crown, if the porcelain overlaps the cervical margin, what is this called? Metalless Porcelain margin Collarless Metal margin A collarless design refers to porcelain overlapping the cervical margin for better esthetics. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) A patient is missing teeth #23 and #33. Will replacing them with FPDs from #21-x-24 and #31-x-34 violate Ante’s law? Maxilla more movement due to violation of Ante’s law Both arches violate Ante’s law Mandible more movement due to violation of Ante’s law No violation of Ante’s law Replacing #23 and #33 with FPDs violates Ante’s law, leading to more movement in the maxilla. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) What causes papillary hyperplasia under a denture? None of the above Occlusal issue Poor fit Continuous wearing and poor cleaning Continuous wearing and poor cleaning can cause papillary hyperplasia. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) What is the simplest way to manage a broken retentive arm? No action needed Solder Wrought wire Replace the clasp Using wrought wire is a simple way to fix a broken retentive arm. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) What is a combination clasp in dental prosthetics? None of the above A clasp with only cast components A clasp with both cast and wrought wire components A clasp with only wrought wire components A combination clasp uses both cast and wrought wire for better retention and flexibility. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) A patient has missing teeth #14, #15, #16, and #47 with only 3 mm interarch space. What is the best option? Fixed bridge Removable partial denture Implant No treatment A removable partial denture is the best option for limited interarch space. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) A patient has Kennedy Class II with a deep mesiobuccal undercut. What clasp should be used? Circlet clasp Combination clasp RPI Ring clasp A combination clasp is suitable for Kennedy Class II cases with deep undercuts. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) What impression material is used for functional impressions in complete dentures? Alginate Impression compound Addition silicone Zinc oxide eugenol Alginate is commonly used for functional impressions. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) A patient has tissue overgrowth near the lower denture. What is the preliminary management? No action needed Trim the irritated part of the denture Implant overdenture Construct a new denture Trimming the irritated part of the denture is the first step in managing tissue overgrowth. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) A patient is missing teeth #35, #38, and #48. What is the Kennedy classification? Class 1 mod 1 Class 1 Class 3 Class 2 mod 1 Missing teeth #35, #38, and #48 classify as Kennedy Class 3. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) What is the importance of the posterior palatal seal? Increased durability of the denture None of the above Improved stability Decreased gag reflex The posterior palatal seal helps reduce the gag reflex. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) A patient pronounces "S" as "Th" with a complete denture. What is the problem? Reduced vertical dimension None of the above Poor occlusal balance Upper incisors placed too palatally Upper incisors placed too palatally can affect speech. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) A patient with a high buccal frenum and Kennedy Class II needs a clasp on tooth #24. What is the best option? RPI (contraindicated) Circlet clasp Ring clasp RPA The RPA clasp is suitable for high buccal frenum cases. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) What is contraindicated in Kennedy Class I RPD? Aker clasp RPI clasp Combination clasp Circlet clasp Circlet clasps are contraindicated in Kennedy Class I RPDs. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) What happens if the retentive arm is above the height of contour? No effect Tipping Fracture Poor retention A retentive arm above the height of contour can cause tipping of the abutment tooth. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) A patient needs to restore #23. What type of occlusion should be used? Mutually protected occlusion Bilateral occlusion Linear occlusion Unilateral occlusion Unilateral occlusion is ideal for restoring a single tooth like #23. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) A patient with Kennedy Class II has a mesially tilted abutment. What clasp should be used? Ring clasp Reverse clasp RPI clasp Combination clasp A ring clasp is suitable for mesially tilted abutments. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) A 22-year-old patient has a reverse anterior crossbite of 9 mm. What is the best treatment? Orthognathic surgery No treatment Orthodontic camouflage Extraction Orthognathic surgery is needed for severe reverse crossbite. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) A patient has Class III malocclusion with maxillary hypoplasia. What is the best treatment? Mouthguard No treatment Headgear Facemask A facemask is effective for correcting maxillary hypoplasia in Class III cases. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) A patient with a quad helix appliance has tongue irritation. What is the best management? Reassure the patient Adjust the appliance Prescribe medication Remove the appliance Reassuring the patient is the first step, as tongue irritation is common initially. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) A 12-year-old patient has Class III malocclusion with a normal mandibular position. What is the best treatment? Surgery Rapid expansion No treatment Slow expansion Rapid expansion is effective for Class III with normal mandibular position. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) A 4-year-old patient has a mandibular shift when closing the mouth. What is the best management? Wait for permanent teeth to erupt No treatment Remove interference from canines Use a functional appliance Removing interference from canines can correct the mandibular shift. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) What is the primary characteristic of maxillary hypoplasia? Overdeveloped mandible Open bite Underdeveloped maxilla Crossbite Maxillary hypoplasia is characterized by an underdeveloped maxilla. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) A patient has a retained primary canine with good prognosis and an impacted permanent canine with poor prognosis. What is the best treatment? Extract the primary canine and place an implant Crown the primary canine Extract the primary canine and close space Leave the primary canine If the primary canine has a good prognosis, it should be left in place. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) A 5-year-old child has lost all anterior primary teeth. What is the most appropriate dental appliance? Space maintainer Removable partial denture No treatment needed Functional appliance A space maintainer is used to preserve space for permanent teeth. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A pediatric patient has a thumb-sucking habit. What is the best appliance to use? Hass appliance Quad helix W arch Palatal crib A palatal crib is effective for breaking thumb-sucking habits. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) What is the best way to level the curve of Spee in a growing patient? TADs No treatment Posterior bite plane Anterior bite plane An anterior bite plane is effective for leveling the curve of Spee. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) Which child is most likely to be abused? Child with no siblings Child with low socioeconomic status Child with high socioeconomic status Child with good academic performance Children from low socioeconomic backgrounds are at higher risk of abuse. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) A 2-year-old caries-free child uses a bottle at night. What fluoride regimen is recommended? Pea size fluoridated toothpaste Smear size fluoridated toothpaste Pea size non-fluoridated toothpaste Smear size non-fluoridated toothpaste A smear of fluoridated toothpaste is recommended for young children. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) What is true about root formation? Root formation stops after eruption Root formation begins once the tooth emerges from the gingiva Root formation begins once the tooth erupts into occlusion Root formation continues even after the tooth is moved Root formation continues even after tooth movement. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) What is the transmission of disease from mother to baby called? Genetic transmission Bottle feeding Horizontal transmission Vertical transmission Vertical transmission refers to disease passing from mother to baby. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) A pediatric patient is missing lower primary molars (E and D) with permanent molars and incisors present. What space maintainer should be used? Lingual arch Nance appliance Transpalatal arch Band and loop A band and loop is ideal for unilateral space maintenance. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) A girl has neck scratches and petechiae on the palate. What is the most likely cause? Neglect Emotional abuse Sexual abuse Physical abuse These signs are often associated with sexual abuse. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) A 10-year-old patient has superficial caries in all first permanent molars. What is the best management? No treatment Extraction Acid fissure sealant Preventive resin restoration Preventive resin restorations are ideal for non-cavitated caries. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) At the end of treatment, how can the dentist reinforce desired behavior in a pediatric patient? Positive reinforcement Negative reinforcement Punishment No reinforcement Positive reinforcement encourages cooperative behavior. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) A 3-year-old patient has multiple caries. What is the best management? Amalgam GIC Composite RMGIC RMGIC is ideal for extensive caries in young children. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A 5-year-old patient has a permanent first molar. What best describes the molar in the provided bitewing? External resorption Ankylosis Ectopic eruption Internal resorption Ectopic eruption is common in young children. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) A 56-year-old patient with missing teeth and generalized horizontal bone loss needs implants. What is the treatment plan? Scaling, root planning, and re-evaluation Request OPG and proceed Request CBCT and proceed Request periapical radiographs and proceed Scaling, root planning, and re-evaluation are necessary before implants. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) A distal deep pocket on tooth #47 requires which type of incision? Intrasulcular Horizontal Distal wedge Vertical A distal wedge incision is used to access and treat distal pockets. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) A patient has NUG. What is the first step in treatment? Extraction Non-surgical treatment RCT Antibiotics Non-surgical treatment, including scaling and oral hygiene, is the first step for NUG. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) A patient has multiple deep pockets after perio treatment. What is the goal of periodontal surgery? Bone grafting Gingivectomy Root coverage Pocket reduction Pocket reduction is the primary goal of periodontal surgery. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) A patient has a short clinical crown with gingivitis and is unhappy with their appearance. What is the management? Gingivoplasty + lengthening Gingivectomy Crown lengthening Scaling and follow-up Crown lengthening improves the appearance of short clinical crowns. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) What is the most accurate method for determining biological width? Radiographs Vertical bitewings Probe Clinical examination Probing is the most accurate method for determining biological width. 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) A patient complains of pain and bleeding around a recently placed crown. What is the management? Crown lengthening Follow-up Antibiotics Refabricate crown Crown lengthening may be necessary to address issues with the crown margin. 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) A patient has recession of 1 mm on #43 and 2 mm on #44. What is the class of recession? Class 4 Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 1 recession does not extend to the mucogingival junction. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) When do the first signs of gingival inflammation appear? 15-21 days 1-3 days 7-14 days 22-28 days The first signs of gingival inflammation appear within 7-14 days. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) What happens to a 21-year-old female patient during menstruation? Bone loss Increased exudate and bacteria Gingival enlargement Tooth mobility Hormonal changes during menstruation can increase gingival exudate and bacteria. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) What is the term for interproximal correction during perio surgery with vertical defects? Flap elevation Interproximal flattening Radical Apical repositioning Interproximal flattening is used to correct vertical bone defects. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) After active treatment for severe periodontitis, residual pockets >5 mm indicate what? High chance of recurrence Advanced periodontitis Healing Low chance of recurrence Residual pockets >5 mm indicate a high risk of periodontitis recurrence. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) A clinical picture shows a periodontal abscess with pus discharge. What is the treatment? Incision and drainage Observe Extraction RCT Incision and drainage are necessary to manage a periodontal abscess with pus. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) A patient has a deep pocket and high fever after scaling. What is the management? Observation Extraction Antibiotics Scaling and root planning with antibiotics Scaling and root planning with antibiotics are necessary for deep pockets and fever. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) Which of the following indicates resolution of gingival inflammation? Histamine Prostaglandin Lipoxins Lysozyme Lipoxins are mediators that help resolve inflammation. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) A patient with stage II periodontitis has root sensitivity after scaling. What should they expect? Tooth mobility Root caries Gingival recession Root sensitivity Root sensitivity is common after scaling and root planning. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) A patient wants crowns but has bleeding and pocket depths of 2-3 mm. What is the appropriate action? SRP and polishing SRP every 4 weeks Polishing and prep Observation Scaling and root planning (SRP) with polishing is necessary before crowns. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) A patient has sensitivity, caries, and an impacted molar. What is the treatment sequence? Antibiotics Extraction, scaling, restoration Restoration, scaling, extraction Scaling, restoration, extraction Scaling, restoration, and extraction is the logical sequence for this case. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) A 66-year-old patient has a necrotic #12 with bone loss to the mid-root. What is the cause? Dens invaginatus Caries Periodontal defect Trauma A periodontal defect is the likely cause of bone loss and necrosis. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) A picture shows bone resorption due to overhanging restorations. What is the etiological factor? Poor oral hygiene Trauma Systemic disease Plaque Plaque accumulation due to overhangs causes bone resorption. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) How often should a patient visit in the first year after implant placement? Every 2 months Every month Every 6 months Every 3 months Patients should visit every 3 months for follow-up. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) What is the management for severe bone loss around an implant? Remove cement Remove implant Scaling and debridement Replace crown Severe bone loss requires implant removal. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What is the diagnosis for saucer-like bone loss around an implant? Fistula Bone loss Periimplantitis Peri-implant mucositis Saucer-like bone loss indicates periimplantitis. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) What is the treatment for a 5 mm space in tooth #14? Screw-retained implant Cemented crown implant FPD 13,15 Maryland bridge A screw-retained implant is ideal for limited space. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) What category do 3.5 to 4.5 mm implants fall under? Narrow Extra-wide Wide Regular 3.5 to 4.5 mm implants are considered regular. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) What should be done if an X-ray shows a long impression coping? Plastic coping Closed tray impression Open tray impression Custom coping Open tray impression is used for long impression copings to ensure accuracy. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) Which nerve is affected if a patient feels pain on implant #37? Incisive nerve Middle superior alveolar nerve Mental nerve Inferior alveolar nerve The inferior alveolar nerve is associated with the lower molar area. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) Which nerve is affected if a patient feels pain on implant #34? Inferior alveolar nerve Incisive nerve Middle superior alveolar nerve Mental nerve The mental nerve is associated with the lower premolar area. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) What causes mobility of an implant crown with pus and bleeding? Poor hygiene Excess cement Loose screw Failed implant A loose screw can cause mobility and inflammation. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) What is the minimum number of implants for a mandibular overdenture? 2 6 4 1 2 implants are the minimum for a mandibular overdenture. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) What causes loosening of an implant crown screw? Excess cement Undesirable lateral excursion Poor hygiene Centered occlusal contact Undesirable lateral excursions can cause screw loosening. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) What is responsible for the emergence profile? Custom coping Healing abutment Implant analog Transfer pin The healing abutment shapes the soft tissue for the emergence profile. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) What is the diagnosis for a metal appearance and bone loss around an implant? Implant failure Buccal perforation Peri-mucositis Peri-implantitis Peri-implantitis is characterized by bone loss and inflammation. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) What is the next step after bone augmentation for 4 mm bone height? Immediate implant Bone graft Internal sinus lift External sinus lift External sinus lift is required for severe bone height deficiency. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) What factors decide between endodontic treatment and implant placement? Cost Bone density Tooth and periodontium factors Patient preference Tooth and periodontium factors are the primary considerations. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) What is the definition of bioethics? Ethics in public health Ethics in research Study of biological ethics Division of applied ethics in healthcare Bioethics deals with ethical issues in healthcare. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) How long can hepatitis survive at room temperature? 4 hours 8 months 1 month Few minutes Hepatitis can survive for up to one month. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) What is used in dental clinics for sterilization? Steam pressure Dry heat Ethylene oxide UV light Steam pressure autoclaves are commonly used. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) A patient insists on veneers for life. How should you address this? Refuse treatment Proceed with treatment Explain why it’s not a good idea Inform her that veneers last 5 years Patient education is essential for managing expectations. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) A female patient has a viral ulcer. What should you do? Disclose the diagnosis to the husband Do nothing Discuss with only the patient Tell the family Patient confidentiality must be maintained. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) What is the process of killing microorganisms? Sterilization Antisepsis Disinfection Cleaning Sterilization kills all microorganisms. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) A patient with cough and runny nose infects the doctor and nurse. What should they do next time? Do nothing Wash hands, wear gloves, and PPE Aspiration Avoid sharp instruments Proper PPE prevents infection. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) What can you use to achieve a diagnosis before clinical examination? Clinical examination Radiographic examination Diagnostic cast Patient interview Patient interviews provide essential information. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) A patient requests extraction of all teeth despite no major issues. What should you do? Extract all teeth Refuse treatment Proceed with partial extraction Refer to a psychologist Psychological evaluation may be necessary. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) What is the most appropriate action when breaking bad news to a patient? Use medical jargon Pause frequently Avoid eye contact Speak quickly Pausing allows the patient to process information. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) You break a file during a procedure and bypass it. What is the best management? Disclose to the patient Refer to another dentist Continue without informing Do nothing Transparency is required for patient trust. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) Who determines an ethical dilemma? Family Doctor Research Patient Research helps identify and resolve ethical dilemmas. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) What is the most common bacteria in waterlines? Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. coli Pseudomonas Legionella Legionella is common in waterlines. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) What should you do with an instrument kit with a blue color indicator? Use it Discard it Return it to CSSD Report it A blue indicator may indicate incomplete sterilization. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) A dentist injures themselves with a needle during a session. What should they do? Apply a bandage Encourage bleeding and wash with water Do nothing Report to HR Immediate wound care is essential. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) What is an extracted asymptomatic tooth considered? Hazardous Infectious Contaminated Sterile Extracted teeth are considered infectious waste. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) What is the time and temperature for dry heat sterilization? 320°F for 120 minutes 120°F for 30 minutes 150°F for 90 minutes 250°F for 60 minutes Dry heat sterilization requires 320°F for 120 minutes. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) Gloves tear during surgery. What should the doctor do? Wash with water Use alcohol hand rub Change gloves Wash with soap and water Washing with soap and water is essential. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) A patient complains of pain in tooth 47, and a dentigerous cyst is found in the 38 region. What is the immediate management? Start treating the lesion Do nothing RCT and inform the patient about the lesion in 38 RCT for 47 Addressing both issues is necessary for comprehensive care. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) A 14-year-old wants a dental diamond but her parents refuse. What should you do? Do it as she wants Don’t do it without parental consent Don’t do it until a parent is present Give her an alternative Parental consent is required for minors. Your score is The average score is 39% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Share Facebook X LinkedIn Pinterest Reddit Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Share via Email Print
