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Blueprint Endodontics : 15% Restorative : 30% Prosthodontics : 17.5% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 10% Periodontics and Implant : 17.5% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 10% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) A file broke in the apical part of the mesial root during endo. Bypassing and retrieval failed. What is the next step? Obturate to the level of the broken file Retreatment Extraction Apical surgery Obturating to the level of the broken file is a common approach. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) What is the suitable obturation technique for internal resorption? Single cone Warm vertical compaction Cold lateral condensation Carrier-based Warm vertical compaction is effective for sealing internal resorption. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) What is the best management for a 1/3 crown fracture with normal pulpal response? Extraction Elective endo and post and core Composite build-up Crown Composite build-up is the best option for minor fractures with normal pulp. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) A 7-year-old child has a small pulp exposure in a central incisor. What is the best treatment? Pulpectomy DPC with MTA Pulpotomy Cervical pulpotomy Cervical pulpotomy preserves pulp vitality in young teeth. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) Which instrument has an active cutting tip? K file Barbed broach H file Reamer The K file has an active cutting tip, making it effective for canal preparation. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) What type of resorption is associated with intracanal bleaching? External replacement Surface External cervical Internal Intracanal bleaching can cause external cervical resorption. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) Why is the smear layer removed before obturation? To remove sealer easily To increase antimicrobial activity To allow sealer penetration None Removing the smear layer ensures proper sealer adhesion. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) What is the best method to refine access for a C-shaped canal? Ultrasonic 169 L bur #1 round bur #2 round bur Ultrasonic tips are precise for refining complex canal anatomy. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) How long should calcium hydroxide be placed in the canal for antimicrobial effect? 3 days 24 hours 2 weeks 4 weeks Calcium hydroxide requires 2 weeks for optimal antimicrobial effect. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) A tooth had RCT, failed, and was re-treated. An apical abscess is present. What is the prognosis? Poor Fair Good Questionable Persistent apical abscess indicates a poor prognosis. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) Which instrument is used for removing pulp tissue? Lentulospiral Pesso reamer Barber broach Gates Glidden Barber broach is designed to remove pulp tissue. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) A patient presents with pulp exposure due to trauma 3 hours ago. What is the best treatment? RCT Indirect pulp cap Direct pulp cap Pulpotomy Direct pulp capping is indicated for small, recent exposures in vital teeth. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) A patient still feels pain after taking ibuprofen. What is the next step? Increase ibuprofen dose Ibuprofen + Acetaminophen Prescribe opioids Follow-up Combining NSAIDs with acetaminophen enhances pain relief. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) What is D9 of a rotary file with size 10 and taper 0.02? 0.32 0.3 0.34 0.28 D9 = 0.10 (size) + (0.02 × 9) = 0.28. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) Pain increases with hot food and decreases with cold. What is the likely diagnosis? Periodontitis Necrosis Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis Reversible pulpitis This is a classic symptom of irreversible pulpitis. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) A patient with severe pain, isolated deep pocket, and bone loss distal to #47. What is the management? Apical surgery Extraction RCT GTR Extraction is often the best option for severe pain and bone loss. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) What type of fracture involves enamel, dentin, and exposed pulp? Root fracture Crown-root fracture Uncomplicated crown fracture Complicated crown fracture A complicated crown fracture involves pulp exposure. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) What is the likely cause of a strip perforation on X-ray? Caries Over-instrumentation Resorption Trauma Over-instrumentation during endo can cause strip perforations. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) What material is placed in the clot during revascularization of immature teeth? Gutta-percha MTA Tribiotic Calcium hydroxide MTA is used to seal the clot during revascularization. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) What is the recommended isolation method for RCT in an asthmatic patient? Cotton rolls then rubber dam Cotton rolls Rubber dam Rubber dam then cotton rolls Rubber dam is the gold standard for isolation during RCT. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) A 4-year-old with intruded primary incisors touching the permanents. What is the management? Monitor Extract both teeth Reposition and splint Allow for spontaneous eruption Extraction is recommended to prevent damage to permanent teeth. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) A pink color on the crown indicates what? Necrosis Internal resorption External resorption Pulpitis Pink discoloration is a sign of internal resorption. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) What is the treatment for a separated instrument in the canal? Bypass or retrieve Extraction Obturation until the file Apical surgery Bypassing or retrieving the instrument is the preferred approach. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) What is the consequence of direct pulp capping in a primary tooth? External resorption Internal resorption Pulp necrosis Pulp obliteration Direct pulp capping in primary teeth can lead to internal resorption. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) Which lubricant removes the smear layer? Chlorhexidine Saline NaOCl EDTA EDTA effectively removes the smear layer. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) A molar with 2 posts and no RCT has no symptoms. What is the management? Extraction Follow-up Assure the patient Re-RCT If asymptomatic, no intervention is needed. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) During instrumentation, a calcified canal suddenly disappears. What is the cause? Bifurcation Ledge Perforation Calcification Bifurcation can cause the canal to split and disappear. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) A patient with pain on biting and an MOD amalgam restoration. X-ray shows no abnormalities. What is the likely cause? Craze line Cracked tooth Periapical abscess Vertical root fracture Pain on biting with no X-ray findings suggests a vertical root fracture. 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) What is the best treatment for pinpoint pulp exposure? GIC MTA Resin CaOH liner MTA is preferred for pinpoint pulp exposure due to its sealing properties. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) A necrotic tooth without swelling requires what treatment? Extraction Start endo Antibiotics Follow up Necrotic teeth without swelling should be treated with RCT. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) A dentist uses latex gloves with polysulfide impression material, but the impression doesn’t set. Why? Temperature issues Insufficient mixing time Sulfur contamination Wrong paste proportion Sulfur in latex gloves can inhibit the setting of polysulfide impression material. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) How many embrasures are there between two adjacent teeth? 2 4 1 3 There are two embrasures between adjacent teeth: one facial and one lingual. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) A class I restoration with deep caries has 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What base should be used? RMGIC Zinc oxide GIC amalgam RMGIC is ideal for deep caries with minimal dentin thickness due to its strength and fluoride release. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) What is the strongest phase in amalgam? Gamma 1 Beta Gamma Gamma 2 The gamma phase is the strongest and most stable phase in amalgam. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) Which cement has the potential for fluoride release? Resin cement Zinc phosphate Zinc phosphosilicate Polycarboxylate Zinc phosphosilicate cement releases fluoride, providing anticariogenic benefits. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) A resin composite restoration has 1 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Calcium hydroxide liner Both RMGIC base No liner Using both calcium hydroxide and RMGIC provides pulp protection and a stable base. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) How should carbide burs be evaluated for survival and effectiveness? High speed before tooth contact Low speed before tooth contact High speed out of oral cavity Low speed out of oral cavity Testing burs at high speed before tooth contact ensures their effectiveness and longevity. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) A patient experiences severe pain during in-office bleaching. What is the likely cause? Light intensity High pH of bleaching agent Tooth sensitivity Gingival bleaching Incorrect placement of the rubber dam can cause gingival irritation and pain during bleaching. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the most suitable action? Restoration Fluoride gel Reinforce oral hygiene instructions Fluoride varnish Reinforcing oral hygiene helps prevent further decalcification and improves overall dental health. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) Which material undergoes an acid-base reaction during setting? Composite Glass ionomer RMGI Componer Glass ionomer sets through an acid-base reaction between the glass powder and polyacid liquid. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) What is the best treatment for pitted enamel? Fluoridation Microabrasion No treatment Macroabrasion Macroabrasion removes superficial enamel defects, improving aesthetics. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) Which instrument is used to finish the buccal and lingual proximal walls? Enamel hatchet Gingival margin trimmer Excavator Chisel An enamel hatchet is designed for precise finishing of proximal walls. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) A broken tooth cannot accommodate a rubber dam. What is the best alternative? Use a clamp Cotton roll isolation Place on adjacent teeth No isolation Placing the rubber dam on adjacent teeth ensures proper isolation for the broken tooth. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) How can the working time of zinc oxide be increased? Mix on a cool glass slab Increase powder/liquid ratio Use a faster-setting cement Reduce mixing time Mixing on a cool glass slab slows the setting reaction, extending the working time. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) A patient complains of food impaction after an amalgam restoration. What is the likely cause? Open contact Lack of embrasure Occlusal trauma Overhanging restoration An open contact allows food to accumulate between teeth, causing impaction. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) Which clamp is used for a class V restoration? W8 212 A13 A12 The 212 clamp is designed for class V restorations, providing optimal retention and stability. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) A deep carious lesion is indicated for extraction. Which of the following criteria helps in choosing the type of extraction? Percussion Gingival swelling in buccal 3 site caries Pulpal pain The extent of caries (3 site caries) is a critical factor in deciding the extraction method. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) Which restoration for posterior teeth is both aesthetic and durable? High filler composite Low filler composite Amalgam RMGI High filler composite provides strength and aesthetics, making it suitable for posterior teeth. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) A patient has proximal white spots but no radiographic evidence of caries. What is the best treatment? No treatment GIC restoration Fluoridation Composite restoration Fluoridation helps remineralize enamel and prevent further decay. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) A patient has hypercementosis. What is the best management? RCT Follow-up No treatment Extraction Hypercementosis is often asymptomatic and only requires follow-up unless symptomatic. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) An impression left for over 15 minutes before pouring appears chalky and smooth. What is the cause? Dehydration shrinkage Contamination Impression expansion Improper mixing Dehydration causes the impression to shrink and appear chalky. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) What is the purpose of a liner in a casting ring? Prevent shrinkage Allow uniform expansion Increase strength Reduce porosity A liner allows uniform expansion of the investment material during casting. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) In a deep cavity, where should decay removal begin to preserve pulp health? Axial wall first Enamel first Floor first Dentin first Starting with the axial wall reduces the risk of pulp exposure and preserves pulp health. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) What is the best restoration for a class V cavity with arrested caries? Composite GIC RMGIC Amalgam Composite is ideal for class V restorations due to its aesthetic and adhesive properties. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) A patient wants to place a final crown with temporary cement to evaluate sensitivity. Which cement is best? Glass ionomer Non-eugenol zinc oxide Zinc phosphate Resin cement Non-eugenol zinc oxide is ideal for temporary cementation due to its biocompatibility. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) Which factor indicates a high risk of caries? Using miswak Fluorosis Good oral hygiene Open contact Open contacts trap food and bacteria, increasing the risk of caries. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) How should a bevel be placed in a class I preparation without burs? Excavator Enamel hatchet Chisel Bevel hatchet A chisel is used to create a bevel in class I preparations without burs. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) Which cement requires slow mixing to reach the desired consistency? Polycarboxylate Zinc phosphate GIC Resin Zinc phosphate requires slow mixing to control the exothermic reaction and achieve proper consistency. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) What causes hydrogen gas formation when PVS impressions are poured immediately? Moisture contamination Air trapping Chemical reaction Improper mixing Hydrogen gas forms due to a chemical reaction between the PVS material and moisture. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) Which impression material can be poured after one day? PVS Polysulfide Zinc oxide Alginate PVS (polyvinyl siloxane) retains its dimensional stability and can be poured after one day. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) A pediatric patient has swelling in the lower lip after extraction. What is the likely cause? Hematoma Infection Allergic reaction Masticatory trauma Masticatory trauma can cause swelling due to irritation of the extraction site. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) What causes gypsum to break during flasking? Exothermic reaction Shrinkage Insufficient bulk Improper mixing Insufficient bulk of gypsum material leads to weak areas that can break during flasking. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) A 60-year-old patient's radiograph shows increased cementum deposition compared to a 25-year-old radiograph. What is the cause? Increased alveolar bone thickness Increased cementum deposition Decreased dentin thickness Decreased enamel thickness Cementum deposition increases with age, leading to thicker cementum layers. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) What type of retention is achieved with a stock tray and irreversible hydrocolloid? Chemical No retention Mechanical Micro-mechanical Mechanical retention is achieved through the tray's design and the material's properties. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) Which impression material is reversible? Agar PVS Polysulfide Alginate Agar is a reversible hydrocolloid, meaning it can transition between gel and sol states. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) Why is GIC preferred over composite in some cases? Better thermal expansion Higher strength Fluoride release Lower cost GIC releases fluoride, providing anticariogenic benefits. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) A patient has recurrent caries under an amalgam restoration. What is the best replacement? GIC Cast metal Composite Gold Cast metal provides durability and reduces the risk of recurrent caries. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) Why is water spray used during cavity preparation? To clean the field To reduce dentinal fluid movement To prevent particle inhalation To decrease dentine heating Water spray cools the tooth, preventing heat-induced damage to the pulp. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) Why does a pin in an amalgam restoration fracture? Excessive force Poor material quality Incorrect pin placement All of the above Pin fracture can result from multiple factors, including placement, force, and material quality. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) What is the advantage of restoring distal first premolar and mesial second premolar in one visit? Less cost Improved aesthetics Better contact Faster procedure Restoring both teeth in one visit ensures proper contact and occlusion. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) Why is a cool glass slab recommended for mixing zinc oxide? Shorten setting time Increase solubility Improve consistency Reduce exothermic reaction A cool glass slab slows the setting reaction, allowing more working time. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) Which type of GIC is used as a luting agent? Type 4 Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 Type 1 GIC is specifically designed for cementation and luting purposes. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) After endo treatment on a tooth with a conservative MO access throw amalgam restoration, what is the next step? Composite core and crown Cast post and PFM Amalgam core and crown Fiber post and ceramic crown Amalgam is a reliable material for core restorations, especially in posterior teeth, as it provides good strength and resistance to occlusal forces. It can also be used effectively as a core for a crown, particularly when there is sufficient remaining tooth structure to support it. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) Which tooth is most prone to caries? Mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar Maxillary first molar Maxillary second molar The mandibular first molar is the most prone to caries due to its deep pits and fissures. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) Condensation of amalgam for 8 minutes results in: No change Residual mercury increases Easy to carve Amalgam will set Prolonged condensation causes the amalgam to set, making it difficult to manipulate. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) A 62-year-old patient has posterior recession and arrested root caries. What is the best treatment? Topical fluoride Systemic fluoride Composite restoration GIC restoration GIC restoration is ideal for arrested root caries due to its adhesion and fluoride release. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) What is the best restoration for a class V cavity in a patient with Sjogren's syndrome? Composite RMGIC GIC Amalgam GIC is ideal for patients with Sjogren's syndrome due to its moisture tolerance and fluoride release. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? RMGIC Zinc oxide Calcium hydroxide GIC Calcium hydroxide is ideal for deep class V restorations to protect the pulp. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) What is the dentist's position when working on teeth #41 and #31? 9 o'clock 7 o'clock 11 o'clock 12 o'clock The 12 o'clock position provides optimal access to the mandibular anterior teeth. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) Which material requires glazing to avoid dehydration? Glass ionomer Amalgam Gold Composite Glass ionomer requires glazing to prevent dehydration and maintain its properties. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) A patient experiences pain when clenching after a class I amalgam restoration. What is the likely cause? Galvanic reaction Over-contoured restoration High point contact Under-contoured restoration High point contact causes pain during clenching due to excessive occlusal pressure. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) What are the components of preventive resin restorations? Glass ionomer RMGI Composite Componer Preventive resin restorations primarily use composite due to its aesthetic and adhesive properties. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) What is the definition of resilience? Hardness Brittleness Resistance to fracture Ability to absorb energy Resilience refers to a material's ability to absorb energy without permanent deformation. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) Why is polyacrylate cement preferred over zinc phosphate? Cost-effectiveness Ease of use Biocompatibility Strength Polyacrylate is more biocompatible and less irritating to the pulp compared to zinc phosphate. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) Which restoration type is most prone to polymerization shrinkage? Class I Class II Class III Class IV Class I restorations are most prone to shrinkage due to their large surface area. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) What is the characteristic setting reaction of PVS? Addition Polymerization Condensation Cross-linking PVS sets through an addition reaction, which is more stable and predictable. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) What causes linear lesions on the facial cervical third of teeth? Erosion Attrition Abfraction Abrasion Abrasion causes linear lesions due to mechanical wear, often from brushing or foreign objects. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) What measures the modulus of elasticity? Resilience Toughness Brittleness Hardness Resilience measures a material's ability to absorb energy and return to its original shape. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) A patient with bruxism has a fractured amalgam. What is the best treatment option? Cast restoration Composite No treatment Ceramic inlay Cast restoration provides durability and strength, which is ideal for patients with bruxism. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) When should polysulfide impressions be poured? 15 minutes Immediately 1 week 1 hour Polysulfide impressions should be poured within 1 hour to ensure accuracy. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) What is an advantage of a modified ridge pontic? Strong and durable Esthetic and no surgery required Easy to clean Cost-effective A modified ridge pontic is esthetic and does not require surgical intervention. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) An elderly patient with osteoarthritis needs a 3-unit bridge in the upper posterior area. Which pontic design is suitable? Sanitary Ridge lap Modified ridge lap Ovate A sanitary pontic design is easy to clean and suitable for patients with limited dexterity. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) During try-in of a 3-unit FPD, there is torque in the retainer. What is the management? Sectioning of the FPD Fix the retainer part Re-cement the FPD Redo the whole FPD Sectioning the FPD allows for adjustment and proper fit of the retainer. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) A patient with a deep bite has a labial fracture of a PFM crown on the lower anterior. What is the cause? Occlusal overload Fractured connector Poor cementation Incorrect anterior guidance Occlusal overload due to a deep bite can cause fractures in PFM crowns. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) Tooth #36 is missing, and you want to fabricate a bridge from #35 to #37, but #26 is supra-erupted. Which side has interference? Lateral Protrusive Centric Retrusive Supra-eruption of #26 can cause protrusive interference during bridge fabrication. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) A patient’s crown keeps falling off. The tooth height is 5 mm. What should be done? Add retention grooves Use stronger cement Extract the tooth Re-prepare the tooth Adding retention grooves improves the mechanical retention of the crown. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) Gutta percha length is 22 mm. What is the length of the post? 22-20 mm 19-17 mm 20-18 mm 21-19 mm The post length should be 3-5 mm shorter than the gutta percha to maintain apical seal. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) What is the minimum number of teeth required for good restoration without harming the gingiva? 2-Jan 6-May 4-Mar 8-Jul 3-4 teeth provide adequate support for a restoration without harming the gingiva. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) A dentist over-prepared tooth #44 for a metal-ceramic crown, resulting in porcelain chipping. What is the cause? Improper porcelain condensation Improper bond between porcelain and metal Compromised framework Thick unsupported porcelain on the buccal side Thick unsupported porcelain on the buccal side can lead to chipping under occlusal forces. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) What is the phosphoric acid percentage used for etching the abutment of a ceramic crown? 37% 50% 15% 20% 37% phosphoric acid is commonly used for etching tooth structure before bonding ceramic crowns. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) What is an advantage of ceramic restorations? Translucent Tensile Transparent Opaque Translucency in ceramics provides a natural appearance, making them highly esthetic. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) How much should be removed from the incisal edge during preparation for a ceramic crown? 1.5 mm 2 mm 1 mm 0.5 mm 2 mm of incisal reduction is required for adequate strength and esthetics in ceramic crowns. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) A patient has a discolored GI core and poor margins. What is the best treatment? New composite core New amalgam core Referral for restorability Correct margins with the same material and fabricate a new crown Poor margins and discoloration require referral for assessment of restorability. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) A patient has a thin gingival phenotype on a prepared tooth. What should you do before taking an impression? Trough with laser for gingival retraction Do gingivectomy Do crown lengthening Use smaller core Gingival retraction with a laser is a conservative and effective method to manage thin gingival tissue. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) The incisal edge of upper front teeth during a smile should be in harmony with: Upper lip Nasal base Upper gingival margin Lower lip The incisal edge of upper front teeth should align with the lower lip for esthetic harmony. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) A premolar with a full-coverage crown has a vertical root fracture. What is the most likely cause? Poor cementation Wide and short root Overload Poor quality RCT A wide and short root is more prone to vertical root fractures under occlusal forces. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) What is the role of flux in soldering? Act as separating medium Prevent oxidation Reduce melting temp of solder Improve flow of solder Flux improves the flow of solder by removing oxides and ensuring a clean surface for bonding. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) A patient wants to extract a lateral incisor. What is the temporary FPD pontic design? Modified ridge lap Ovate Conical/bullet Sanitary An ovate pontic is the most aesthetic choice for a temporary FPD replacing a lateral incisor. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) A patient is unsatisfied with the appearance of her 6 anterior PFM crowns. Why? Under contour and translucent Under contour and opaque Over contour and translucent Over contour and opaque Over contouring and opacity can make PFM crowns appear bulky and unnatural. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) A patient complains of slight deflection in rest one day after crown placement. What is the issue? Rest Working Protrusive Centric Deflection in rest suggests an issue with centric occlusion. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) A patient with a perfect-fitting denture has redness in all areas. What is the cause? Wearing denture all the time Poor fit Increased vertical dimension Poor relief in some areas Wearing the denture all the time can cause tissue irritation and redness. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) A tooth has no undercut and is fully sound. What should be done for an RPD? No preparation needed Extract the tooth Surveyed crown Dimple Creating a dimple provides retention for the RPD without altering the tooth significantly. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) A patient needs to restore #23. What type of occlusion should be used? Bilateral occlusion Mutually protected occlusion Unilateral occlusion Linear occlusion Unilateral occlusion is ideal for restoring a single tooth like #23. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) A patient cannot wear an immediate RPD the next morning. What is the cause? Occlusal issue Lack of insertion skills Swelling and inflammation after extraction None of the above Swelling and inflammation after extraction can prevent denture wear the next day. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) A patient with inflamed mucosa needs a new complete denture. What should be done? No action needed Rebase the denture Reline with tissue conditioner Instruct the patient to remove the denture at night Relining with a tissue conditioner helps manage inflamed mucosa. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) An I-bar clasp is broken on an RPD with a metal base. What is the conservative way to fix it? Wrought wire Refabricating the clasp Recasting the bar clasp No action needed Using wrought wire is a conservative way to fix a broken I-bar clasp. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) A patient has bilateral posterior ridge resorption. What type of occlusion should be used? Lingualized occlusion None of the above Neutrocentric occlusion Bilateral balanced occlusion Neutrocentric occlusion is ideal for patients with bilateral ridge resorption. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) How should posterior teeth be set up for a patient with skeletal Class II? Upper slightly palatal Lower slightly buccal Upper slightly buccal Upper on the crest of the ridge Setting upper teeth slightly palatal helps compensate for skeletal Class II. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) What happens if rest seat preparation is done before the guiding plan? None of the above Inadequate rest seat preparation No effect Improved retention Rest seat preparation before the guiding plan can lead to inadequate rest seats. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) What is the minimum metal thickness for a metal rest? 1 mm 2 mm 3 mm 4 mm The minimum metal thickness for a metal rest is 1 mm. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) What determines the rate of forces transmitted to soft tissues and teeth in an RPD? Direction of forces Type of metal in the base Shape of the base Retainer design The shape of the base determines how forces are distributed in an RPD. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) Why does inflammatory papillary hyperplasia occur in the palate? Fungal infection Not removing the denture at night None of the above Poor oral hygiene Not removing the denture at night can cause inflammatory papillary hyperplasia. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) A patient has very limited interarch space. What is the best RPD base material? Flexible base Acrylic base Meshwork Metal base A metal base is ideal for limited interarch space due to its thin profile. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) What is the recommended major connector for a patient with a palatal torus? Palatal plate Anterior-posterior palatal strap U-shaped None of the above A U-shaped major connector is ideal for patients with a palatal torus. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) A patient with an immediate denture returns after 4 weeks with tissue overgrowth. What is the diagnosis? Denture stomatitis Papillary hyperplasia None of the above Epulis fissuratum Epulis fissuratum is a common tissue overgrowth caused by ill-fitting dentures. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) A 5-year-old patient has a lateral shift of the mandible when closing. What is the best management? Disking interfering tooth No treatment Wait for permanent teeth Expansion Disking the interfering tooth can correct the lateral shift. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) A patient complains of a broken tube and irritating wire, with an appointment scheduled in 2 weeks. What should be done? Remove the wire Re-bond the tube Cut the excess wire Tell the patient to wait Cutting the excess wire is the most appropriate action to relieve irritation until the next appointment. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) A patient has cephalometric findings showing decreased SNB and increased incisal angle. What is the diagnosis? Class II division 2 Class II division 1 Class III Class I Decreased SNB and increased incisal angle indicate Class II division 2. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) A patient has an ulcer at the end of the buccal mucosa due to orthodontic treatment. What is the most likely cause? Extended wire Normal adjustment pain Infection Broken bracket An extended wire is a common cause of buccal mucosal ulcers. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) A patient is missing tooth #6, and teeth #7 and #5 are tilted. What is the best treatment to replace tooth #6? Extract tooth #7 and place a bridge Leave the space as it is Use a removable partial denture Upright tooth #7 and replace #6 with an implant Uprighting the tilted teeth and placing an implant is the ideal treatment to restore function and aesthetics. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) At what age should the first orthodontic screening occur? 15 years 7 years 12 years 10 years The American Association of Orthodontists recommends screening by age 7. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) An 8-year-old patient has a retrognathic mandible. What is the best treatment? Headgear Functional appliance Surgery No treatment Functional appliances are effective for growing patients with retrognathic mandibles. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) A patient has increased lower facial height, abnormal ramus growth, open bite, and proclined incisors. What is the most likely cause? Tongue thrust habit Genetic factors Mouth breathing Coronal syndrome Mouth breathing is a common cause of increased lower facial height and open bite. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A patient has a retained primary canine with good prognosis and an impacted permanent canine with poor prognosis. What is the best treatment? Extract the primary canine and place an implant Extract the primary canine and close space Crown the primary canine Leave the primary canine If the primary canine has a good prognosis, it should be left in place. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) How often should a rapid expansion and Quad helix appliance be activated? Once weekly Twice weekly Once monthly Once daily Rapid expansion appliances are typically activated once daily. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) A 3-year-old patient has multiple surface caries. What is the best restoration? RMGIC Amalgam Composite SSC SSCs are ideal for extensive caries in primary teeth. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) What is the leeway space in the mandible per side? 3.0 mm 0.5 mm 2.5 mm 1.7 mm The leeway space in the mandible is approximately 1.7 mm per side. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) Where is the loop located in a band and loop space maintainer? On the occlusal surface On the buccal surface At the contact point On the lingual surface The loop is placed at the contact point to maintain space. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) A pediatric patient needs an appliance. Which one is most appropriate? Bluegrass appliance Herbst appliance Nance appliance Thumb crib The Bluegrass appliance is used for thumb-sucking habits. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) What is the transmission of disease from mother to baby called? Horizontal transmission Genetic transmission Bottle feeding Vertical transmission Vertical transmission refers to disease passing from mother to baby. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) A pediatric patient has multiple colored restorations. What fluoride regimen is recommended? No fluoride 1100 ppm fluoridated toothpaste, 0.05% fluoride mouthwash 500 ppm fluoridated toothpaste Fluoride varnish only A combination of fluoridated toothpaste and mouthwash is effective for caries prevention. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) A 12-year-old patient has an ankylosed primary molar with no successor. What is the best management? No treatment Wait until age 18 Refer to a pediatric dentist Extract the tooth Specialist referral is necessary for ankylosed teeth with no successors. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) A mother reports her child is on a strict diet and has interproximal caries on lower molars. What is the best restoration? Adhesive resin restoration GIC SSC Amalgam Adhesive resin restorations are ideal for small interproximal caries. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) When should occlusion be checked after placing an SSC? Before cementation No need to check After cementation At the next appointment Occlusion should be checked before cementation to ensure proper fit. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A pediatric patient is missing lower primary molars (E and D) with permanent molars and incisors present. What space maintainer should be used? Transpalatal arch Nance appliance Lingual arch Band and loop A band and loop is ideal for unilateral space maintenance. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) Recession at the marginal gingiva not extending to the mucogingival junction is classified as what? Class 3 Class 1 Class 2 Class 4 Class 1 recession does not extend to the mucogingival junction. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) What happens to the interdental papilla when teeth are moved apart by orthodontics? Becomes fibrous Splits and forms deep pockets Disappears Adapts to the bone The interdental papilla adapts to the bone when teeth are moved apart. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) A diabetic patient lost all her mobile teeth. What is the cause? Periodontitis Caries Systemic disease Trauma Periodontitis is a common cause of tooth loss in diabetic patients. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) A patient has 6 mm from CEJ to the base of the pocket. What does this indicate? 4 mm pocket depth, 2 mm attachment loss 6 mm pseudo pocket 2 mm pocket depth, 4 mm attachment loss 6 mm attachment loss The 6 mm measurement indicates 2 mm pocket depth and 4 mm attachment loss. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) A patient has sensitivity, inadequate keratinized tissue, and high frenum attachment. What is the treatment? Frenectomy + FGG FGG CTG Frenectomy + CTG Frenectomy with free gingival graft (FGG) is used to address high frenum attachment and insufficient keratinized tissue. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) When does pocket depth equal clinical attachment loss? Pocket depth 3 mm above CEJ Pocket depth 2 mm above CEJ Pocket depth 1 mm above CEJ Pocket depth at CEJ Pocket depth equals clinical attachment loss when measured at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ). 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) Why are overhangs removed in restorations? Improve aesthetics Prevent gram-negative bacteria growth Allow calculus accumulation Allow gram-positive bacteria growth Overhangs are removed to prevent plaque accumulation and gram-negative bacteria growth. 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) What is the function of a periodontal probe? Measure pocket depth Check caries Check bleeding on probing (BOP) Excavate caries Periodontal probes are used to check for bleeding on probing (BOP). 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) A patient wants crowns but has bleeding and pocket depths of 2-3 mm. What is the appropriate action? SRP every 4 weeks Observation SRP and polishing Polishing and prep Scaling and root planning (SRP) with polishing is necessary before crowns. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) What is the maximum length a curette can achieve in nonsurgical periodontal treatment? 5.75 mm 2.75 mm 3.75 mm 4.75 mm The maximum length a curette can achieve is typically 4.75 mm. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) What type of incision is used to raise a flap coronally? External bevel Internal bevel Releasing Sulcular A sulcular incision is used to raise a flap coronally. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) A patient complains of pain and bleeding around a recently placed crown. What is the management? Crown lengthening Antibiotics Follow-up Refabricate crown Crown lengthening may be necessary to address issues with the crown margin. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) A patient has swelling after eating fish post-scaling. What is the diagnosis? Peri-implantitis Osteomyelitis Gingival abscess Periodontal abscess A gingival abscess is likely after trauma or food impaction. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) A patient has sensitivity, caries, and an impacted molar. What is the treatment sequence? Scaling, restoration, extraction Antibiotics Restoration, scaling, extraction Extraction, scaling, restoration Scaling, restoration, and extraction is the logical sequence for this case. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) A young adult with orthodontic treatment has gingival enlargement. What is the first step? Gingivectomy SRP and re-evaluation Observation Antibiotics Scaling and root planning (SRP) with re-evaluation is the first step. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) A patient has very dark staining on all teeth. What is the best treatment? Crown lengthening alone Crown lengthening and crown Veneers Whitening Dark staining often requires crowns for full coverage and aesthetic improvement. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) A diabetic patient has calculus, severe bleeding, and deep pockets. What is the management? Mechanical cleaning + CHX gel Doxycycline + Amoxicillin Augmentin CHX mouthwash Mechanical cleaning with CHX gel is the first step in managing diabetic periodontitis. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) A patient has pain and grade 1 mobility after a mesial restoration. Radiographs show funneling in the PDL. What is the diagnosis? Secondary occlusal trauma Primary occlusal trauma Acute trauma Chronic trauma Primary occlusal trauma is caused by excessive forces on a healthy periodontium. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) What is the minimum distance between the restoration margin and the bone crest? 7-8 mm 3-4 mm 1-2 mm 5-6 mm The minimum distance is 1-2 mm to maintain biological width. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) What is the effect of periodontal treatment on a diabetic patient? No effect Increases HbA1c Worsens diabetes Decreases HbA1c Periodontal treatment can improve glycemic control in diabetic patients. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) Which nerve is affected if a patient feels pain on implant #37? Incisive nerve Mental nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Middle superior alveolar nerve The inferior alveolar nerve is associated with the lower molar area. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) What is the best option for a diabetic patient with missing teeth? Can’t replace Removable Implant Fixed Implants are suitable for controlled diabetic patients. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What type of implant is indicated for a traumatic loss of tooth #11? Very wide implant Bone level implant External hex implant Tissue level implant A bone level implant is ideal for traumatic cases. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) What is responsible for the emergence profile? Implant analog Custom coping Transfer pin Healing abutment The healing abutment shapes the soft tissue for the emergence profile. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) What is the complication of screw-retained implants for multiple units? Interocclusal space Difficult to retrieve Excess cement Lack of passivity Lack of passivity is a common complication in screw-retained implants. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) What is the normal bone loss around an implant in the first year? 1-1.5 mm 3-3.5 mm 0.5-1 mm 2-2.5 mm 1-1.5 mm is the normal bone loss in the first year. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) What is the maximum implant size for a 12 mm space in tooth #14? 10 mm 9 mm 12 mm 11 mm An 11 mm implant is the maximum size for a 12 mm space. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) What is the treatment for a 7 mm remaining bone height after extraction? Bone graft Immediate implant Internal sinus lift External sinus lift Internal sinus lift is suitable for 7 mm bone height. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) Where is the easiest area for implant placement? Upper anterior Upper posterior Lower posterior Lower anterior Lower anterior is the easiest area due to fewer anatomical complications. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) What is the treatment for recession caused by remaining cement? Soft tissue graft Change crown Bone graft Remove cement Removing the remaining cement resolves the issue. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) What is the cause of bleeding around a 5 mm implant in a lateral incisor? Loose screw Excess cement No space from adjacent teeth Poor hygiene Lack of space from adjacent teeth can cause bleeding. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) Why is D4 bone the worst for implants? Poor bone density High occlusion Lack of primary stability High vascularity D4 bone lacks primary stability due to low density. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) What causes loosening of an implant crown screw? Poor hygiene Undesirable lateral excursion Centered occlusal contact Excess cement Undesirable lateral excursions can cause screw loosening. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) What is compromised with an implant size 4, vertical 10, MD 7, width 4? Height Width Length Diameter The width is compromised with the given dimensions. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) What is the required distance from the interproximal implant to the crest of bone? 4.0 mm 3.4 mm 1.8 mm 2.5 mm 3.4 mm is required to preserve the papilla. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) A dentist extracts the wrong tooth. What is this considered? Human error Malpractice Near miss System failure Extracting the wrong tooth is malpractice. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) What category are instruments that contact mucous membranes? Sterile Critical Noncritical Semicritical Semicritical instruments contact mucous membranes. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) What causes corrosion of carbon steel instruments? Chemical disinfection UV light Dry heat Autoclave Autoclaving can cause corrosion if not properly managed. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) How long can hepatitis survive at room temperature? 4 hours 1 month Few minutes 8 months Hepatitis can survive for up to one month. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) What is the definition of confidentiality? Sharing information with colleagues Disclosing information to family Posting information online Keeping patient information private Confidentiality protects patient privacy. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) What is an extracted asymptomatic tooth considered? Contaminated Infectious Sterile Hazardous Extracted teeth are considered infectious waste. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) How should instruments be cleaned in a sink? Partly immersed Fully immersed Dry Flat Fully immersing ensures thorough cleaning. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) What container should be used for an extracted tooth with amalgam? Biohazardous waste Infectious waste Sharps container Regular waste Amalgam waste is considered biohazardous. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) A patient’s family disagrees with a hopeless diagnosis. What should the nurse do? Follow the NRO Call the team Take the case to court Do not call the team The team should be called for further evaluation. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) Who is the focus of the healthcare system? Auxiliary team Doctor Patient Family The patient is the central focus of healthcare. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) A dental assistant gets injured during surgery and develops a fever. What should she do? Continue working Take sick leave Ignore the injury Report to HR Sick leave is necessary for recovery and infection control. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) Which virus remains a high risk even after vaccination? Hepatitis B Hepatitis A HIV Hepatitis C Hepatitis B can still pose a risk post-vaccination. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) A senior consultant treats a relative instead of following the waiting list. What did she violate? Taking advantage of her position Autonomy Disrespect the profession Non-maleficence Favoritism violates ethical standards. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) You cut your finger while applying a matrix. What should you do? Wash with antiseptic Do nothing Apply sanitizer on gloves Apply plaster Antiseptic washing prevents infection. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) A dentist explains treatment thoroughly to a patient. What did he demonstrate? Autonomy Beneficence Veracity Non-maleficence Thorough explanation demonstrates veracity. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) How should a prosthesis be disinfected before sending it to the lab? Steam autoclave Glutaraldehyde Dry heat UV light Glutaraldehyde is used for disinfection. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) What is the best way to clean hands after a procedure? Soap and water, then alcohol Alcohol only Regular soap only Water only Regular soap is sufficient for hand cleaning. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) What is the definition of autonomy? Right of competent adults to make informed decisions Right of doctors to decide treatment Right of the state to decide treatment Right of family to decide treatment Autonomy respects patient decision-making. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) What is the pressure for autoclaving at 126°C? 20 psi 10 psi 25 psi 15 psi 20 psi is required for autoclaving at 126°C. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) An assistant discusses a patient with a friend. What did she violate? Autonomy Non-maleficence Patient privacy Beneficence Discussing patient information violates privacy. 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