SDLE MCQ R11 SDLE Mock Test Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test R11 SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz R11 SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 11% Restorative : 5% Prosthodontics : 12% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 11% Periodontics and Implant : 13% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 11% Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients : 34% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) Which tooth consistently has a single canal? Mandibular canine Maxillary central Maxillary canine Mandibular premolar Maxillary central incisors typically have one canal. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) What is the primary use of root canal sealer? Increase strength of filling Irrigate the canal Fill the voids Disinfect the canal Sealers are used to fill voids between the GP and canal walls. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) An 8-year-old patient has severe pain in tooth #6. What is the treatment? Extraction RCT Pulpotomy Apexogenesis Apexogenesis preserves pulp vitality in immature teeth. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) A patient has sensitivity to cold and a crack on the mesial surface. Pain stops upon stimulus removal. What is the pulp condition? Normal pulp Irreversible pulpitis Necrotic pulp Reversible pulpitis Reversible pulpitis is characterized by transient pain. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) A patient has broken instruments in the apical third but is asymptomatic after 3 months. What is the management? Surgical intervention Follow-up Extraction Non-surgical retreatment Asymptomatic cases with broken instruments can be monitored. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) What causes a tooth to turn yellow after trauma? Internal resorption Necrosis External resorption Pulp obliteration Trauma can lead to pulp obliteration and discoloration. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) Which instrument has a negative rake angle? Rotary file K-file H-file Reamer K-files have a negative rake angle, which makes them less aggressive. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) A patient has pain in tooth #46 and an impacted adjacent tooth. What is the treatment? Treat tooth #46 Monitor Inform about the impacted tooth Extract the impacted tooth The pain is likely from #46, which requires treatment. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) How can a doctor differentiate between tooth #11 and #21 after avulsion? Root curvature is different Mesial slope is shorter Distal surface is rounded Crown length is longer The distal surface of tooth #21 is typically more rounded. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) What is the primary indication for apexification? Open apex in immature teeth Root fracture Internal resorption Periapical abscess Apexification is used to induce apical closure in immature teeth. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) What does EDTA stand for? Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid 17% Ethanoldiamine tetraacetic acid 17% Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid 12% Ethanoldiamine tetraacetic acid 12% EDTA is a 17% chelating agent used in canal irrigation. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) What is the splinting time for a horizontal root fracture between the apical and middle third? 2 weeks 4 weeks 6 weeks 8 weeks The recommended splinting time is 4 weeks. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) What is the shape of the access opening for a central incisor? Round Triangular or trapezoid Rectangular Oval The access opening for central incisors is typically triangular or trapezoid. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) An endo-treated tooth is short and needs re-RCT. What type of bacteria is likely present? Streptococcus mutans Lactobacillus Porphyromonas gingivalis Enterococcus faecalis E. faecalis is commonly found in retreated canals. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) Which root rarely has two canals? Distal root of lower 6 Distobuccal root of upper 6 Palatal root of upper 6 Mesial root of lower 6 The distobuccal root of maxillary molars seldom has two canals. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) A child has an avulsed primary tooth stored in milk and arrives immediately. What is the management? Splint the tooth Wait for parents Contraindicated to reimplant Reimplant without consent Reimplantation is contraindicated for primary teeth. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) What is the splinting time for alveolar bone fracture? 3-4 weeks 1-2 weeks 6-7 weeks 8 weeks The recommended splinting time is 3-4 weeks. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) A patient came with a separated instrument. The doctor used ultrasonic to loosen the file. What is the next step? Obturate the canal Perform apicoectomy Leave the file in place Remove the separated instrument After loosening, the next step is to remove the separated instrument. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) A child has a traumatized anterior tooth that appears longer. What is the diagnosis? Intrusion Fracture Extrusion Avulsion The tooth appears longer due to extrusion. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) What is the primary use of a nerve broach? Place medicaments Remove pulp tissue Clean and shape canals Measure canal length Nerve broaches extirpate pulp from canals. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) What is a potential outcome of pulpotomy with ferric sulfate? Coronal resorption Apical resorption Internal resorption External resorption Ferric sulfate may trigger internal resorption. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) What is the cross-section shape of a Flex-R file? Square Triangular Rectangular Round Flex-R files have a triangular cross-section for flexibility. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) Where is MB2 located relative to MB1? Mesial Distal Palatal Buccal MB2 is typically palatal to MB1 in maxillary molars. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) A patient has permanent incisors intruded 3-4 mm. What is the treatment? RCT Splint the teeth Surgical extraction Orthodontic extrusion Orthodontic extrusion is the preferred treatment. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) Which type of canal is most difficult to treat in endodontics? Calcified Fused roots Short, straight, wide Long, curved, narrow Long, curved, narrow canals are technically challenging. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) For a 35 rotary file with 0.04 taper, calculate D9. 0.35mm 0.71mm 0.66mm 0.40mm D9 = (0.04 × 9) + (35/100) = 0.71 mm. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) What is the best management for a perforation? Extraction No treatment Delayed repair Immediate repair with MTA MTA provides an immediate seal for perforations. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) A patient has a traumatized anterior tooth with enamel and dentin affected, but the pulp is vital. What is this case? Complicated crown fracture Uncomplicated crown fracture Root fracture Concussion No pulp exposure makes it an uncomplicated crown fracture. 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) An upper central incisor was avulsed 2 days ago and kept in a dry plastic bag. What should be done? Reimplant without cleaning Clean and reimplant Do not reimplant; replace with a prosthesis Splint adjacent teeth Reimplantation is contraindicated after 2 hours in dry conditions. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) An X-ray shows GP beyond the apex. What is the reason? Over-condensation Ledge formation Incorrect file size No apical stop The absence of an apical stop allows GP extrusion. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) Which is a high-risk caries factor? Fluorosis Open contact Good oral hygiene Using miswak only Open contacts trap food, increasing caries risk. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) How to differentiate crack from craze line? X-ray Transillumination Cold test Percussion Transillumination highlights crack lines. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) Final restoration after endo access through amalgam: Crown Composite Amalgam Temporary filling Amalgam is durable for posterior teeth post-endo. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) Throbbing pain under gold onlay (#45) with opposing amalgam: Galvanism High occlusion Cracked tooth Periodontal abscess Galvanic currents cause pain from dissimilar metals. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) A patient drinks soda daily. Which non-carious lesion is likely? Abfraction Erosion Abrasion Hypoplasia Acidic drinks cause erosion. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) Fractured mesial cusp on molar with composite: management? Extract Crown Onlay Inlay Onlays cover cusps and conserve tooth structure. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) Pt with upper 6,7 shallow amalgam restorations has dull pain below eye. Cause? Cracked tooth Sinusitis Periodontitis Irreversible pulpitis Pain referred from sinusitis often mimics toothache. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) Acid-base reaction material: GIC Amalgam Composite ZOE GIC sets via acid-base reaction between glass and polyacid. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) Wrinkled rubber dam holes indicate: Incorrect clamp placement Holes too far apart Dam too small Dam too thick Wrinkles arise from stretched dam material. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) Management of pulp exposure during caries removal: MTA RCT Direct capping Indirect capping Direct capping is attempted for small exposures. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) When should shade selection for restoration be done? Before rubber dam application During polishing After anesthesia After finishing Shade matching is accurate before dehydration from rubber dam. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) Bone resorption under amalgam is likely due to: Trauma from occlusion Calculus Bacterial invasion from overhang Amalgam allergy Overhangs cause plaque accumulation and bone loss. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) Advantage of zinc oxide: Fast resorption Esthetic High strength Adhesive properties Zinc oxide resorbs quickly in tissues. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) Cement for fiber posts: Temporary cement Resin ZOE GIC Resin cement bonds well to posts and dentin. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) Management of amalgam overhang: Remove and replace restoration SRP Monitor Finishing Overhangs cause plaque retention and must be removed. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) Collagen type during pulp development: Type I Type IV Type III Type II Type I collagen dominates pulp extracellular matrix. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) X-rays for low-caries-risk 9-year-old recall: Panoramic + 2 bitewings Full-mouth series 2 periapicals + 2 bitewings None needed No x-rays needed for low-risk patients without symptoms. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) Management of weak ridge after Class II caries removal: Place matrix band Monitor Reinforce with GIC Remove ridge Weak ridges risk fracture; removal prevents future issues. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) Best material for Class V cervical caries: Hybrid composite Amalgam Macrofill composite Flowable composite Flowable composites adapt well to cervical lesions. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) Preventive resin restoration for fissure caries: RMGIC Resin composite Compomer GIC Resin composites are durable for preventive restorations. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) Copper % in high-copper amalgam: 2% 10% 4% 13% High-copper amalgams contain ~13% copper for strength. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) When remaining dentin above pulp is less than 0.5mm, what material is used? Calcium hydroxide liner ZOE cement Composite resin GIC Calcium hydroxide protects the pulp in deep cavities. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) Disadvantage of ZOE: Long setting time Weak strength Allergic potential Poor adhesion ZOE can cause allergic reactions in some patients. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) Woman requests amalgam removal due to health concerns: Refer to specialist Educate on safety Staged removal Remove all immediately Amalgam safety is evidence-based; education is priority. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) Why choose a white shade after rubber dam placement? Enamel permeability + inorganic Enamel permeability Dentin color Enamel organic content Rubber dam dehydrates enamel, affecting shade. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) Bone loss near overhang amalgam is caused by: Occlusal trauma Systemic disease Allergic reaction Food impaction + plaque retention Overhangs retain plaque, leading to periodontitis. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) Pt wants to remove all amalgam due to health fears. Best approach: Partial removal with composite Educate on amalgam safety Remove all in one session No intervention Evidence shows amalgam is safe; patient education is key. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) Correct position for amalgam pin: Parallel to tooth long axis Perpendicular to cavity Parallel to enamel-dentine junction Diagonal placement Pins should align with tooth structure to avoid stress. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) Powered bleaching uses: Hydrogen peroxide Polyacrylic acid Sodium perborate Carbamide peroxide Hydrogen peroxide is the active bleaching agent. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) Best diagnostic tool for incipient smooth surface caries: Bitewing Diagnodent Transillumination Periapical Bitewings detect early interproximal caries. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) Class III cavities are located: Proximal of posteriors Proximal of anteriors Occlusal pits Gingival third Class III affects anteriors’ proximal surfaces. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) Cement with chemical bond to enamel: Zinc polycarboxylate Composite GIC Zinc phosphate Polycarboxylate bonds chemically to enamel. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) The main composition of dentin is: Water Collagen fibers Lipids Hydroxyapatite (non-organic) Hydroxyapatite is the primary inorganic component. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) Lining for deep Class V cavity near pulp: GIC Calcium hydroxide Zinc phosphate Composite Ca(OH)2 protects pulp in deep cavities. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) Histological feature of cervical caries: Sclerotic dentin Pulp inflammation Bacterial invasion Demineralized enamel Cervical caries shows sclerotic dentin. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) Problem caused by overhang: Pulp necrosis Occlusal interference Tooth fracture Gingival irritation Overhangs irritate gums and retain plaque. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) Occlusal contact placement for bruxism patient: Light contact Smooth concave fossa No contact Deep fossa Concave fossa distributes forces evenly, reducing deflection. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) Extra buccal groove in crown prep for: Gingival health Occlusal stability Esthetics Retention Grooves enhance mechanical retention. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) Dentinal tubule diameter near pulp (µm): 3 1 2 4 Tubules widen near pulp (~2.5-3µm). 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) Pre-bleaching assessment: Record shade Check for caries Evaluate existing restorations All of the above Comprehensive assessment ensures safe bleaching. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) Pain from overhang restoration is due to: Pulpitis Cracked tooth Food impaction Sinusitis Overhangs trap food, causing gingival irritation. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) Chemo-mechanical tooth wear is termed: Erosion Abrasion Attrition Abfraction Erosion is chemical wear, e.g., from acids. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) Bur for amalgam removal: Diamond Finishing bur Carbide Steel Carbide burs cut amalgam efficiently. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) Instrument for sharpening angles in Class II prep: Hatchet Gingival trimmer Chisel (angle former) Spoon excavator Angle former creates precise line angles. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) The primary function of silane coupling agent is to: Prevent caries Bind porcelain to tooth Reduce sensitivity Strengthen enamel Silane bonds porcelain to resin/teeth. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) Best root for post in maxillary molars: Fused roots Distobuccal Mesiobuccal Palatal Palatal root is longest and straightest for post placement. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) Management of food impaction after composite: Replace restoration Remove excess Monitor Add composite layer Poor contacts require restoration replacement. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) Metamerism refers to: Restoration shrinkage Tooth discoloration Bleaching effect Color mismatch under different light Metamerism is color variation under different light sources. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) Cavity depth less than 0.5 mm in composite requires: GIC base ZOE cement Only dentin bonding system Calcium hydroxide liner Shallow cavities only need bonding for adhesion. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) Why mix zinc phosphate on cold slab? Prevent cracking Enhance adhesion Reduce shrinkage Prolong working time Cold slows exothermic reaction, extending working time. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) Dentin primer function: Wet dentin for bonding Reduce sensitivity Strengthen enamel Remove caries Primer prepares dentin for adhesive bonding. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) Food impaction due to occlusal wear on proximal surfaces is caused by: Embrasure size Occlusal contact Poor restoration contour Proximal contact issue Open proximal contacts allow food trapping. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) Treatment order for #47 (sensitivity, calculus, impacted #38): Scale → restore → extract Extract → restore → scale Monitor Restore → scale → extract Scaling first reduces inflammation for accurate diagnosis. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) For a composite restoration with 0.5 mm of remaining dentin, what should be placed? GIC Dentin bonding system only Calcium hydroxide Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE) cement Dentin bonding system is sufficient for minimal remaining dentin. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) Gold onlays on #13,14; pain on biting + chipped canine edge. Cause? Galvanism High occlusion Cracked tooth Sinusitis High occlusion causes trauma to opposing teeth. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) Polyether impression material property: Worse rigidity than polysulfide Absorbs water and expands Worse stability than polysulfide Better stability than PVS Polyether absorbs water, causing dimensional changes. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) Generation of etch-primer-bond adhesive system: 4th 5th 7th 6th 4th-gen systems involve separate etching, priming, and bonding steps. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) Post-brace tooth discoloration treatment: Internal bleaching Microabrasion External bleaching Veneers Microabrasion removes surface stains (macroabrasion is ideal but not listed). 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) Cement causing ceramic fractures: Resin cement Polycarboxylate Zinc phosphate GIC GIC’s rigidity stresses brittle ceramics. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) Why remove smear layer during RCT? Reduce postoperative pain Prevent discoloration Enhance sealer penetration Easier sealer removal Smear layer blocks dentinal tubules; removal improves sealing. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) What is the occlusal reduction for a PFM crown on a non-functional cusp? 2.5 mm 1.5 mm 1.0 mm 2.0 mm 1.5 mm ensures adequate strength and space for porcelain. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) Which instrument measures PFM metal thickness during try-in? Ruler Micrometer Boley gauge Iwanson caliper Iwanson calipers provide precise metal thickness measurements. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) How long can PVS impression pouring be delayed? 1 hour 1 week 1 month 1 day PVS impressions remain stable for up to 1 week. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) How to manage incisal chipping on a full-ceramic bridge? Chairside composite repair Polish the chipped area Send to lab for repair Remake the bridge Extensive chipping requires remaking the bridge. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) Which pontic design is hardest to clean? Ridge lap Modified ridge lap Sanitary Ovate Ridge lap pontics trap debris against the ridge. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) How to prepare a veneer for a discolored, worn incisor? No incisal reduction Reduce lingual only Full coverage Incisal reduction + 1mm clearance Incisal reduction and clearance ensure proper function and aesthetics. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) After cementation, a gap is found on the buccal surface of a crown. What should you do? Schedule recementation for later Remove and recement immediately Add composite Monitor and follow up Immediate removal and recementation prevent further complications. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) What is hemisection? Removing a root Extracting half the tooth Root amputation Splitting a multi-rooted tooth Hemisection involves splitting a tooth while retaining salvageable roots. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) Which pontic design offers superior aesthetics for replacing #15? Saddle Sanitary Ovate Modified ridge lap Ovate pontics mimic natural tooth emergence. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) What is the best tool to clean under a 2-unit bridge? Water flosser Regular floss Interdental brush Super floss Super floss cleans pontics and abutments effectively. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) What is the maximum time for pouring alginate impressions? 15 minutes 1 hour 3 hours 1 day Alginate impressions distort quickly; pouring within 15 minutes is ideal. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) What is a pier abutment? A freestanding abutment A cantilever abutment A secondary abutment A splinted abutment Pier abutments are freestanding and support prostheses independently. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) What type of failure occurs when porcelain detaches from porcelain? Static Adhesive Fracture Cohesive Cohesive failure occurs between porcelain layers. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) What causes bad odor and bubbles under a pontic? Abutment-retainer separation Abutment fracture Food impaction Connector fracture Separation allows bacterial accumulation, causing odor. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) Why might a veneer detach from the prepared tooth? Insufficient etching Moisture exposure Contaminated veneer surface Weak bonding agent Contamination prevents proper bonding. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) What should a technician do if an extra white block is added to porcelain? Increase white color Increase translucency Reduce firing temperature Increase thickness Balancing the white color ensures natural aesthetics. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) What color neutralizes yellow in a restoration? Green Pink Violet Blue Violet counteracts yellow hues. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) How to manage bleeding during impression with a temporary crown? Use epinephrine Delay the impression Use ferric sulfate Replace the crown Bleeding indicates tissue trauma; crown replacement allows healing. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) A patient with metal-ceramic crowns has gingival inflammation. What is the cause? Metal allergy Biological width violation Cement excess Poor oral hygiene Subgingival margins violating biological width cause inflammation. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) How to enhance aesthetics in crowns for upper premolars? Reduce non-functional cusps Full coverage No reduction Reduce functional cusps Non-functional cusp reduction improves aesthetics without compromising function. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) What occlusion type is used for full mouth rehabilitation? Unilateral occlusion Canine guidance Bilateral balanced occlusion Organic occlusion Canine guidance provides stability during lateral movements. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) An impression is thick on one side and thin on the other. What is the reason? Patient movement Uneven material mix Incorrect tray position Tray distortion Improper tray positioning causes uneven material distribution. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) A tooth has shallow buccal contours. Which clasp is suitable? RPA clasp T-bar clasp RPI clasp Ring clasp RPA clasps work well with shallow contours. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) For a patient with a firm edentulous ridge and severe atrophic tongue, which impression technique is most suitable? Normal impression Mucostatic Functional impression Mixed impression tech. Normal impression is suitable for firm ridges without severe atrophy. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) A Kennedy class III case has a mid-buccal undercut. Which clasp is suitable? Ring clasp I-bar clasp Circumferential clasp Embrasure clasp I-bar clasps are ideal for mid-buccal undercuts. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) An edentulous patient with complete dentures is asked to blow air with the nose closed. What is being checked? Anterior vibrating line of PPS Lateral extension of PPS Posterior vibrating line of PPS Midline of the palate This test checks the anterior vibrating line for proper seal. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) A patient is missing teeth #4-6 on both sides. What direct retainer is recommended? Circle clasp Embrasure clasp I-bar clasp RPC clasp Circle clasps provide retention for bilateral missing teeth. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) What clasp is used for a mid-buccal undercut on upper tooth #5? Ring clasp Aker clasp RPI clasp T-bar clasp RPI clasps engage mid-buccal undercuts without gingival interference. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) Why should dentures be cleaned after each meal? Maintain aesthetics Prevent cross-infection Improve retention Allow denture to "breathe" Cleaning prevents bacterial buildup and infections. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) What is the primary function of a surveyor in RPD design? Evaluate aesthetics Determine path of insertion Measure undercuts Check occlusion Surveyors help determine the optimal path of insertion. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) How many rests and retainers are needed for a class IV RPD? 2 rests, 1 direct, 1 indirect 1 rest, 1 direct 3 rests, 2 direct, 1 indirect 4 rests, 2 direct, 2 indirect Class IV RPDs typically require 4 rests (2 direct and 2 indirect). 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) In a Class II RPD, which element provides bracing for terminal abutments? Occlusal rest Guide plane Lingual reciprocals Minor connector Lingual reciprocals resist lateral forces. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) What is the recommended thickness for an occlusal rest in an RPD? 2.0 mm 0.5 mm 1.0 mm 1.5 mm Occlusal rests should be 1.5 mm thick for strength. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) Which impression material is contraindicated for a diabetic patient with sulfite allergy? Alginate Polysulfide Polyether Silicone Polysulfide contains sulfites, which can trigger allergies. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) A patient with good oral hygiene and ridge width complains of poor mastication with CDs. What is the best solution? Implant-supported CD Remake the CD Reline the CD Adjust occlusion Implant-supported CDs improve function and stability. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) What type of bite plane is used in Class II division 2 malocclusion? Flat plane Inclined plane Anterior bite plate Posterior bite plate Anterior bite plates help correct deep bites in Class II cases. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) A patient with red, inflamed left cheek during orthodontic treatment. What is the probable cause? Poor oral hygiene Stainless steel allergy Trauma Infection Allergic reactions to stainless steel components can occur. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) A 14-year-old has space for right canine but not left. What is the treatment? Fixed prosthesis Canine extraction No treatment Orthodontic alignment Fixed prostheses replace missing or non-erupted canines. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) What is the most prevalent molar classification in the general population? Class III Class II division 2 Class I Class II division 1 Class I malocclusion is the most common. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) A patient complains of an extended orthodontic wire. What should be done? Wait for next appointment Bend the wire Cut the wire Remove the appliance Trimming the wire prevents soft tissue irritation. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) How often should rapid expansion be activated? Every other day Once a day Twice a day Once a week Rapid expansion requires daily activation for effective results. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) A Class III malocclusion due to maxillary constriction. What appliance is used? Bonded expander Quad helix W-arch Banded expander Bonded expanders are effective for maxillary constriction. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) A 6-year-old with unilateral posterior crossbite and midline shift. What is the treatment? No treatment Functional appliance Rapid expansion Slow expansion (2mm per week) Slow expansion corrects crossbite in mixed dentition. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) What type of force is ideal for orthodontic tooth movement? Heavy intermittent No force Light continuous Variable Light continuous forces are most physiological. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) What appliance is used for a retruded mandible? Face mask Rapid palatal expander Chin cup Functional appliances Functional appliances advance the mandible. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) A cooperative pediatric patient has a badly decayed lower primary molar. Best treatment? Stainless steel crown GIC Amalgam Composite SSC provides full coverage and durability for severely decayed teeth. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) A cooperative pediatric patient has multiple carious lesions. Best restoration? SSC Composite GIC Amalgam SSC is ideal for multiple lesions due to its longevity. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) A 3-year-old with active white caries is at what caries risk level? Low risk High risk Moderate risk Extreme risk Active white spots indicate high caries risk. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) An apprehensive child with multi-surface caries in a primary molar needs restoration. Best option? Amalgam Composite GIC SSC SSC is efficient for extensive caries in uncooperative patients. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) A 9-year-old has unerupted supernumerary teeth in the incisor region. Management? Monitor with radiographs Orthodontic alignment Wait for eruption Surgical extraction Supernumerary teeth obstruct eruption and require removal. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) A 9-year-old with destroyed first molars and no missing teeth needs extraction when: Premolars are missing Pain is present Crowding exists Third molar furcation is visible Third molar furcation allows for natural replacement. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) A pediatric patient with multiple caries and negative behavior needs treatment. Best option? Prophylaxis + fluoride varnish Swab + fluoride gel Prophylaxis + fluoride gel Swab + fluoride varnish Fluoride varnish is quick and effective for uncooperative patients. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) A panoramic radiograph shows all teeth erupted except lower 5s and all 7s. Patient age? 11 years 10 years 12 years 13 years Lower second premolars erupt around 11-12 years. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) Why is caution needed during primary tooth preparation? Thin enamel Large pulp horn Brittle dentin Small pulp chamber Large pulp horns increase risk of exposure during preparation. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A pediatric patient has multi-surface caries in posterior teeth. Best restoration? GIC Composite Adhesive restoration SSC SSC is indicated for multi-surface caries in primary teeth. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) Bacteria associated with pregnancy gingivitis? S. mutans P. intermedia T. denticola A. actinomycetemcomitans P. intermedia thrives in elevated progesterone levels. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) What angle should a curette be inserted for subgingival scaling? 0 degrees 20 degrees 30 degrees 10 degrees 0 degrees allows smooth subgingival insertion. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) How to detect subgingival calculus? Visual inspection Radiographs Tactile perception Disclosing agent Tactile perception with a probe is most reliable for subgingival calculus. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) Boundary between attached/unattached gingiva? Mucogingival junction Interdental papilla Free gingival groove Alveolar mucosa Free gingival groove marks the apical border of unattached gingiva. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) Which probe has 3 sections? UNC probe Marquis probe Williams probe WHO probe Marquis probe features 3 sections (3-6-9mm markings). 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) Which radiograph detects biological width violation? Periapical Vertical bitewing Occlusal Panoramic Vertical bitewings show alveolar crest and crown-root relationships clearly. 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) Management of gingival recession with CEJ caries? Combined procedure Gingival graft first Restoration first Monitoring Gingival graft should precede restoration to ensure proper tissue coverage. 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) Tooth with recent amalgam and Class 2 mobility indicates? Periodontal abscess Primary occlusal trauma Root fracture Secondary occlusal trauma Secondary trauma occurs with compromised periodontium. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) Best treatment for multiple 1-2mm recessions with sensitivity? Apically positioned flap Coronally advanced flap Free gingival graft Connective tissue graft CT grafts offer superior esthetics for anterior teeth with minimal recession. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) Diagnosis for pain after eating popcorn? Periodontal abscess ANUG Food impaction Gingival abscess Popcorn husks commonly cause traumatic gingival abscesses. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) When does CAL equal PD? With no recession With gingival hyperplasia With pocket formation With bone loss CAL = PD when no recession exists (e.g., sulcus depth = attachment level). 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) Post-treatment evaluation with less than 5% bleeding on probing (BOP) with good oral hygiene indicates? Periodontal healing Need for surgery Treatment failure Systemic involvement Low BOP demonstrates successful tissue inflammation control. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) Complication of impacted canine exposure? Root resorption Pulp necrosis Recession Ankylosis Surgical trauma often causes labial gingival recession. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) Diagnosis for post-scaling abscess? Herpetic lesion Periodontal abscess Gingival abscess Pericoronitis Periodontal abscesses commonly occur after scaling. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) What is the color coding sequence of UNC-15 probe? Every 1mm Every 5mm (5,10,15) Alternating colors Every 3mm UNC-15 probes mark every 5mm for easy depth assessment. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) What is the yellowish material on teeth that can’t be rinsed off? Stains Calculus Food debris Plaque Plaque is the initial biofilm that adheres firmly to teeth. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) Cause of swelling after scaling in diabetic patient? Trauma Infection Allergic reaction Unremoved calculus Residual subgingival calculus can cause delayed healing in diabetics. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) Bacteria causing horizontal bone loss in 60-year-old? Fusobacterium Porphyromonas Streptococci Actinomyces Actinomyces species are linked to chronic horizontal bone loss. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) Gracey 11/12 curette use? Distal of #36 Buccal of #24 Mesial of #36 Lingual of #41 Designed for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) Microscopic findings in healthy gingival fluid? Few lymphocytes Neutrophil predominance Many plasma cells No inflammatory cells Healthy sites show minimal lymphocytes without active inflammation. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) After extracting upper tooth #6 with slight sinus pneumatization (7 mm space), which procedure is indicated? Bone grafting Internal sinus lift No lift needed External sinus lift Internal lifts are minimally invasive for 4–7 mm bone height. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) A patient reports implant mobility during eating. The image shows space above the fixture. What is the cause? Lack of keratinized tissue Crown fracture Failed osseointegration Loose implant screw Mobility with space indicates screw loosening, not necessarily failure. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What is the minimum number of implants required for a mandibular overdenture? 3 4 2 1 Two implants provide adequate stability for mandibular overdentures. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) When can a patient wear their previous denture after two-stage implant placement? After 2 months Never Immediately After 1 week A 1-week delay prevents pressure on healing implants. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) How long should you wait before placing a crown after implant placement? 4 months 6 months 2 months 1 week Maxillary implants need 6 months; mandibular need 3–4 months. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) Which dimension determines implant size for an upper molar? Horizontal width Mesiodistal width Bone depth Occlusogingival height Mesiodistal space dictates implant diameter (e.g., 7 mm for molars). 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) A patient has 7 mm between the bone floor and sinuses and requests implants. What is the appropriate procedure? Bone grafting Internal sinus lift Short implants External sinus lift Internal sinus lift is sufficient for 7 mm residual bone height. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) Which bone type is ideal for implant placement? D2 (Thick cortical) D3 (Thin cortical) D4 (Trabecular) D1 (Dense cortical) D2 bone offers optimal density for stability and healing. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) Radiolucency surrounds an implant at #45 in the image. What should be done? Wait for healing Refer to specialist Augmentation Adjust occlusion Radiolucency indicates failure; removal by a specialist is needed. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) Which dimension most compromises implant success if inadequate? Occlusogingival Bone depth Mesiodistal Horizontal Horizontal width <5 mm risks poor primary stability. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) A 5 mm diameter implant in an upper lateral causes inflammation. Why? Poor placement Allergic reaction Infection Oversized implant Anterior implants should be 3–4 mm to avoid soft tissue stress. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) What is visible in a two-stage implant during healing? Abutment screw Healing abutment Fixture Crown Healing abutments protrude through the gum for soft tissue shaping. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) What is the ideal space between an implant and a natural tooth? 2 mm 1.5 mm 2.5 mm 1 mm 1.5 mm minimizes bone loss and maintains periodontal health. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) How to prevent a screwdriver from being ingested during implant placement? Gauze padding Assistant’s hand Floss tied to driver Magnetic holder Floss secures the screwdriver to the tray. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) What is missing in the diagnostic workup for an upper central incisor implant? CBC Diagnostic wax-up MRI Fully adjustable articulator Wax-ups and surgical templates ensure precise implant positioning. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) What percentage of sharp instrument injuries go unreported? 25% 45% 15% 35% Underreporting is common due to fear or inconvenience. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) A patient wants veneers, but you believe they are unnecessary. What should you do? Discuss conservative alternatives Proceed with veneers Refer the patient Decline the request Ethical practice involves recommending the least invasive options. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) When should hand scrubbing be performed? A. Before treating patients D. Only when hands are visibly soiled B. After treating patients C. Before and after treating patients Hand hygiene is critical before and after patient contact. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) How should burs be disinfected? A. Dry heat D. UV light B. Autoclave C. Chemical soak Dry heat is effective for heat-resistant instruments like burs. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) An amnesiac emergency patient needs treatment but has no relatives. Who decides? B. The dentist A. The patient C. A judge D. A hospital committee Dentists act in the patient’s best interest if they lack capacity and have no proxy. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) Two boys under 18 request ortho treatment. Whose consent is needed? B. The boys themselves C. A school official D. No consent required A. Their parents Parental consent is required for minors’ non-emergency care. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) What is the correct order for removing PPE? D. Goggles → gloves → gown → mask A. Gloves → gown → goggles → mask B. Gown → gloves → mask → goggles C. Mask → goggles → gloves → gown Gloves are removed first to prevent contamination of other PPE. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) What should a healthcare worker do after a needlestick injury? Continue working Ask the patient about blood diseases Wash the wound only Stop treatment and report Reporting and follow-up testing are mandatory. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) What is the definition of bioethics? Study of biological systems All of the above Moral issues in healthcare Ethics in medical research Bioethics encompasses all moral issues related to healthcare and biology. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) Where should the sterilization indicator be placed? Bottom of the pack Outside the pack Top of the pack Middle of the pack The middle ensures even sterilization. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) A patient with expired insurance asks you to continue treatment and pay later, citing a periodontist who allowed this. What should you do? Report the periodontist Suggest a public hospital Demand out-of-pocket payment Proceed and accept later payment Flexibility in payment can be considered if trust exists, but policies vary. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) A 16-year-old girl living in Canada, who is pregnant, asks you to perform an abortion. What should you do? Refer her to another doctor Perform the abortion Refuse without explanation Explain Islamic laws and refer her to another doctor If the doctor is uncomfortable with the procedure, they should explain their ethical stance and refer the patient to another professional. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) A nurse with a finger injury wears rings while working. What should she do before hand hygiene? Spray the cut with alcohol Remove the wedding ring Remove the diamond ring Cover the cut waterproof Jewelry can trap bacteria and interfere with proper hand hygiene. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) How long should hand sanitizer be applied? D. 1 minute C. 20-30 seconds B. 15-20 seconds A. 5-10 seconds 20-30 seconds ensures full coverage and effectiveness. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) When can confidential medical reports be disclosed? C. For research purposes B. For discussions with other doctors A. With patient consent D. For billing audits Sharing with other doctors is permitted for continuity of care. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) A dentist misdiagnosed cervical burnout as caries and placed composite restorations. What should be done? Inform the patient of the mistake Ignore the issue Justify the treatment Compensate with a free appointment Honesty and corrective action are required in misdiagnosis cases. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) A doctor receives kickbacks from a pharmaceutical company for prescriptions. What ethical violation is this? A. Conflict of interest D. Breach of confidentiality C. Unprofessional conduct B. Fraud Kickbacks create a conflict of interest, compromising patient care. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) An autistic patient with mental retardation arrives with a nurse. Who provides consent? A. The patient D. No consent needed C. The nurse B. The parents Parents/guardians consent for patients unable to do so themselves. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) Which bacteria is typically found in dental unit waterlines? Staphylococcus E. coli Legionella Salmonella Legionella is a waterborne pathogen. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) How should a tooth with an amalgam filling be disinfected for educational use? D. Hydrogen peroxide C. Autoclave B. 70% Alcohol A. 10% Formalin Formalin effectively disinfects while preserving the tooth. Your score is The average score is 40% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Share Facebook X LinkedIn Pinterest Reddit Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Share via Email Print
