SDLE MCQ R11 SDLE Mock Test Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test R11 SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz R11 SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 11% Restorative : 5% Prosthodontics : 12% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 11% Periodontics and Implant : 13% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 11% Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients : 34% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) A patient has pain in tooth #46 and an impacted adjacent tooth. What is the treatment? Extract the impacted tooth Inform about the impacted tooth Treat tooth #46 Monitor The pain is likely from #46, which requires treatment. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) What is the primary use of root canal sealer? Disinfect the canal Increase strength of filling Irrigate the canal Fill the voids Sealers are used to fill voids between the GP and canal walls. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) An endo-treated tooth (#37) causes pain. Likely cause? Missing MB2 Periapical cyst Cracked root Overfilling Missed MB2 canals are a common cause of persistent pain. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) What is the splinting time for alveolar bone fracture? 3-4 weeks 8 weeks 1-2 weeks 6-7 weeks The recommended splinting time is 3-4 weeks. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) A patient returns with pain 2 days after RCT. No intervention is needed. What is the next step? Increase ibuprofen dose Prescribe antibiotics Combine ibuprofen with acetaminophen Replace ibuprofen with acetaminophen Combination therapy is more effective for pain control. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) What does EDTA stand for? Ethanoldiamine tetraacetic acid 17% Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid 17% Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid 12% Ethanoldiamine tetraacetic acid 12% EDTA is a 17% chelating agent used in canal irrigation. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) How to confirm vertical root fracture? Transillumination Exploratory surgery CBCT Percussion test Exploratory surgery provides definitive diagnosis. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) Where is MB2 located relative to MB1? Distal Buccal Palatal Mesial MB2 is typically palatal to MB1 in maxillary molars. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) Which material promotes periapical healing? Corticosteroids Eugenol Calcium hydroxide Zinc phosphate Calcium hydroxide aids in healing due to its biocompatibility. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) A patient complains of dark tooth after RCT. What is the most probable cause? Blood pigments in tubules Debris in tubules Bacterial infection Leaking restoration Blood pigments in tubules are common after trauma (if mentioned in the question). 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) A file separated in the middle. What is the prognosis if the dentist was able to retrieve it? Good Hopeless Questionable Poor If the file is retrieved, the prognosis is good. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) Why remove the access filling temporarily? To check hemostasis To reduce cost To reassess canal anatomy To avoid overfilling Temporary removal ensures proper hemostasis before final obturation. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) What is a potential outcome of pulpotomy with ferric sulfate? Internal resorption External resorption Coronal resorption Apical resorption Ferric sulfate may trigger internal resorption. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) Which trauma is associated with a “high metallic sound”? Concussion Subluxation Intrusion Avulsion Intrusion produces a high metallic sound upon percussion. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) A patient has a horizontal radiolucent line in the middle of the root, a yellowish tooth, and a history of trauma. Cold test shows a late response. What is the diagnosis? Root fracture Periapical abscess Crown/root fracture Internal resorption The findings are consistent with a root fracture. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) What causes “sealer puffiness” in an endo-treated tooth with a lateral lesion? Overfilled canal Periapical abscess Vertical root fracture Lateral canal Sealer puffiness often indicates a lateral canal. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) In the SLOB technique, where is the lingual canal located? Lingual Buccal Mesial Distal SLOB rule: Same Lingual, Opposite Buccal. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) A patient has broken instruments in the apical third but is asymptomatic after 3 months. What is the management? Extraction Surgical intervention Follow-up Non-surgical retreatment Asymptomatic cases with broken instruments can be monitored. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) A patient has a horizontal fracture between the middle and apical third with an osseous lesion. The tooth does not respond to cold. What is the treatment? RCT for both segments RCT for the coronal segment Extract the tooth Splint the two segments Only the coronal segment requires RCT. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) What is the access cavity shape for an upper first premolar with 3 canals? Triangular Oval Round Rectangular With 3 canals, the access cavity becomes triangular. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) A curved root canal in an upper molar is shown. What mishap is likely to happen? Ledge formation Perforation at the bifurcation Overfilling File separation Curved canals are prone to ledge formation. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) An upper central incisor was avulsed 2 days ago and kept in a dry plastic bag. What should be done? Clean and reimplant Do not reimplant; replace with a prosthesis Reimplant without cleaning Splint adjacent teeth Reimplantation is contraindicated after 2 hours in dry conditions. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) Which dentin component causes pain in exposed DT? Odontoblastic processes Fluid movement Hydroxyapatite Collagen Fluid shifts in dentinal tubules stimulate nerve endings. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) What is the fixation time for intrusion? 6 weeks 8 weeks 4 weeks 2 weeks The recommended fixation time is 4 weeks. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) A calcified canal is encountered during RCT. What should you do? Continue the procedure Use ultrasonic tips Take a CBCT Refer to an endodontist Calcified canals often require specialized expertise. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) A patient had an avulsed central tooth replanted after 45 minutes. After one week, the lateral is vital, but the central is non-vital. What should be done? Leave splint and perform RCT on the central Extract the tooth Monitor without treatment Remove splint and perform RCT The central tooth requires RCT, but the splint should remain. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) How far should the spreader penetrate in lateral compaction? 3-4 mm To the apex Less than 1-2 mm Half the canal length Spreader should stay 1-2 mm short to avoid apical pressure. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) A file fractured after finishing preparation with a large size. What is the prognosis? Poor Questionable Good Hopeless Good progrnosis 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) What is the splinting time for a horizontal root fracture between the apical and middle third? 6 weeks 4 weeks 8 weeks 2 weeks The recommended splinting time is 4 weeks. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) During RCT, uncontrolled bleeding and lost WL indicate? Perforation Cracked root Calcified canal Instrument separation Sudden bleeding and WL loss suggest perforation. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) Acid-base reaction material: Composite Amalgam ZOE GIC GIC sets via acid-base reaction between glass and polyacid. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) Priority in treating large vs. small caries: Simultaneous restoration Restore large first Restore small first No treatment Large caries pose higher risk of pulp involvement. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) Cement for fiber posts: GIC ZOE Resin Temporary cement Resin cement bonds well to posts and dentin. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) Correct position for amalgam pin: Parallel to enamel-dentine junction Perpendicular to cavity Diagonal placement Parallel to tooth long axis Pins should align with tooth structure to avoid stress. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) Pt with upper 6,7 shallow amalgam restorations has dull pain below eye. Cause? Irreversible pulpitis Cracked tooth Sinusitis Periodontitis Pain referred from sinusitis often mimics toothache. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) Class III cavities are located: Gingival third Proximal of anteriors Occlusal pits Proximal of posteriors Class III affects anteriors’ proximal surfaces. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) Polyether impression material property: Worse stability than polysulfide Better stability than PVS Worse rigidity than polysulfide Absorbs water and expands Polyether absorbs water, causing dimensional changes. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) Food impaction due to occlusal wear on proximal surfaces is caused by: Embrasure size Occlusal contact Proximal contact issue Poor restoration contour Open proximal contacts allow food trapping. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) Pre-bleaching assessment: Record shade Evaluate existing restorations Check for caries All of the above Comprehensive assessment ensures safe bleaching. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) Fractured mesial cusp on molar with composite: management? Extract Onlay Crown Inlay Onlays cover cusps and conserve tooth structure. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) Management of food impaction after composite: Replace restoration Add composite layer Monitor Remove excess Poor contacts require restoration replacement. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) Bur for amalgam removal: Carbide Steel Finishing bur Diamond Carbide burs cut amalgam efficiently. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) Metamerism refers to: Restoration shrinkage Tooth discoloration Color mismatch under different light Bleaching effect Metamerism is color variation under different light sources. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) Dentinal tubule diameter near pulp (µm): 3 4 2 1 Tubules widen near pulp (~2.5-3µm). 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) Preventive resin restoration for fissure caries: Resin composite Compomer GIC RMGIC Resin composites are durable for preventive restorations. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) Best root for post in maxillary molars: Palatal Mesiobuccal Distobuccal Fused roots Palatal root is longest and straightest for post placement. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) Wrinkled rubber dam holes indicate: Dam too thick Holes too far apart Dam too small Incorrect clamp placement Wrinkles arise from stretched dam material. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) Disadvantage of ZOE: Long setting time Allergic potential Poor adhesion Weak strength ZOE can cause allergic reactions in some patients. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) Bone loss near overhang amalgam is caused by: Occlusal trauma Systemic disease Food impaction + plaque retention Allergic reaction Overhangs retain plaque, leading to periodontitis. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) Gold onlays on #13,14; pain on biting + chipped canine edge. Cause? Sinusitis Cracked tooth High occlusion Galvanism High occlusion causes trauma to opposing teeth. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) Final restoration after endo access through amalgam: Composite Amalgam Crown Temporary filling Amalgam is durable for posterior teeth post-endo. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) Pt wants to remove all amalgam due to health fears. Best approach: Partial removal with composite Remove all in one session No intervention Educate on amalgam safety Evidence shows amalgam is safe; patient education is key. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) Management of amalgam overhang: Monitor Remove and replace restoration Finishing SRP Overhangs cause plaque retention and must be removed. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) Throbbing pain under gold onlay (#45) with opposing amalgam: Cracked tooth Periodontal abscess Galvanism High occlusion Galvanic currents cause pain from dissimilar metals. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) Cement with chemical bond to enamel: Zinc polycarboxylate GIC Zinc phosphate Composite Polycarboxylate bonds chemically to enamel. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) Post-brace tooth discoloration treatment: Microabrasion Internal bleaching Veneers External bleaching Microabrasion removes surface stains (macroabrasion is ideal but not listed). 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) Collagen type during pulp development: Type IV Type III Type II Type I Type I collagen dominates pulp extracellular matrix. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) Advantage of zinc oxide: Esthetic Adhesive properties High strength Fast resorption Zinc oxide resorbs quickly in tissues. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) How to differentiate crack from craze line? Transillumination Percussion Cold test X-ray Transillumination highlights crack lines. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) Pain from overhang restoration is due to: Cracked tooth Pulpitis Sinusitis Food impaction Overhangs trap food, causing gingival irritation. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) Problem caused by overhang: Pulp necrosis Tooth fracture Gingival irritation Occlusal interference Overhangs irritate gums and retain plaque. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) Dentin primer function: Remove caries Wet dentin for bonding Strengthen enamel Reduce sensitivity Primer prepares dentin for adhesive bonding. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) Which is a high-risk caries factor? Good oral hygiene Fluorosis Open contact Using miswak only Open contacts trap food, increasing caries risk. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) Why mix zinc phosphate on cold slab? Reduce shrinkage Enhance adhesion Prolong working time Prevent cracking Cold slows exothermic reaction, extending working time. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) Why choose a white shade after rubber dam placement? Enamel organic content Enamel permeability Dentin color Enamel permeability + inorganic Rubber dam dehydrates enamel, affecting shade. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) Management of pulp exposure during caries removal: RCT MTA Direct capping Indirect capping Direct capping is attempted for small exposures. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) Treatment order for #47 (sensitivity, calculus, impacted #38): Restore → scale → extract Monitor Scale → restore → extract Extract → restore → scale Scaling first reduces inflammation for accurate diagnosis. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) Best material for Class V cervical caries: Hybrid composite Flowable composite Amalgam Macrofill composite Flowable composites adapt well to cervical lesions. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) Zinc phosphate contraindication: High solubility Long setting time Poor esthetics Low strength Solubility in oral fluids limits its use. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) Lining for deep Class V cavity near pulp: Composite Calcium hydroxide Zinc phosphate GIC Ca(OH)2 protects pulp in deep cavities. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) Best diagnostic tool for incipient smooth surface caries: Periapical Transillumination Diagnodent Bitewing Bitewings detect early interproximal caries. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) Bone resorption under amalgam is likely due to: Calculus Trauma from occlusion Amalgam allergy Bacterial invasion from overhang Overhangs cause plaque accumulation and bone loss. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) Instrument for sharpening angles in Class II prep: Spoon excavator Hatchet Chisel (angle former) Gingival trimmer Angle former creates precise line angles. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) Cement causing ceramic fractures: GIC Polycarboxylate Resin cement Zinc phosphate GIC’s rigidity stresses brittle ceramics. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) Occlusal contact placement for bruxism patient: Light contact Deep fossa Smooth concave fossa No contact Concave fossa distributes forces evenly, reducing deflection. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) Powered bleaching uses: Sodium perborate Carbamide peroxide Hydrogen peroxide Polyacrylic acid Hydrogen peroxide is the active bleaching agent. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) A patient drinks soda daily. Which non-carious lesion is likely? Abfraction Hypoplasia Abrasion Erosion Acidic drinks cause erosion. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) Extra buccal groove in crown prep for: Occlusal stability Gingival health Esthetics Retention Grooves enhance mechanical retention. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) The main composition of dentin is: Water Hydroxyapatite (non-organic) Collagen fibers Lipids Hydroxyapatite is the primary inorganic component. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) Cavity depth less than 0.5 mm in composite requires: ZOE cement Only dentin bonding system Calcium hydroxide liner GIC base Shallow cavities only need bonding for adhesion. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) When remaining dentin above pulp is less than 0.5mm, what material is used? GIC Composite resin ZOE cement Calcium hydroxide liner Calcium hydroxide protects the pulp in deep cavities. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) When should shade selection for restoration be done? After anesthesia After finishing Before rubber dam application During polishing Shade matching is accurate before dehydration from rubber dam. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) The primary function of silane coupling agent is to: Bind porcelain to tooth Prevent caries Strengthen enamel Reduce sensitivity Silane bonds porcelain to resin/teeth. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) X-rays for low-caries-risk 9-year-old recall: Panoramic + 2 bitewings Full-mouth series 2 periapicals + 2 bitewings None needed No x-rays needed for low-risk patients without symptoms. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) Generation of etch-primer-bond adhesive system: 7th 5th 6th 4th 4th-gen systems involve separate etching, priming, and bonding steps. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) Woman requests amalgam removal due to health concerns: Educate on safety Remove all immediately Staged removal Refer to specialist Amalgam safety is evidence-based; education is priority. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) Why remove smear layer during RCT? Easier sealer removal Enhance sealer penetration Prevent discoloration Reduce postoperative pain Smear layer blocks dentinal tubules; removal improves sealing. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) Copper % in high-copper amalgam: 2% 4% 10% 13% High-copper amalgams contain ~13% copper for strength. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) Most durable material for foundation restoration in broken-down molars: Amalgam Composite resin Compomer GIC Amalgam provides strength for core build-ups. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) For a composite restoration with 0.5 mm of remaining dentin, what should be placed? Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE) cement GIC Dentin bonding system only Calcium hydroxide Dentin bonding system is sufficient for minimal remaining dentin. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) What causes a chalky white surface on a cast? Slurry water contamination Saliva thin film Vacuum spacing Over-drying of impression Over-drying the impression leads to chalky surfaces. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) Which pontic is best for immediate post-extraction sites? Modified ridge lap Sanitary Ovate Conical Ovate pontics adapt well to healing sockets. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) What is the minimum metal thickness for a resin-bonded bridge retainer? 0.5 mm 1.5 mm 0.7 mm 1.1 mm 0.7 mm ensures strength without compromising adhesion. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) What is a pier abutment? A splinted abutment A freestanding abutment A cantilever abutment A secondary abutment Pier abutments are freestanding and support prostheses independently. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) What is the best tool to clean under a 2-unit bridge? Water flosser Super floss Regular floss Interdental brush Super floss cleans pontics and abutments effectively. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) During try-in of a PFM crown, the ceramic layer falls off the metal. What is the reason? Metal contamination Thermal expansion mismatch Improper bonding Insufficient porcelain thickness Improper bonding between ceramic and metal is the primary cause. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) What should a technician do if an extra white block is added to porcelain? Reduce firing temperature Increase thickness Increase translucency Increase white color Balancing the white color ensures natural aesthetics. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) Which instrument measures PFM metal thickness during try-in? Boley gauge Micrometer Ruler Iwanson caliper Iwanson calipers provide precise metal thickness measurements. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) What describes the lightness or darkness of a color? Value Hue Shade Chroma Value refers to color lightness/darkness in dentistry. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) A crown on #16 debonds repeatedly due to short length (3mm). What is the solution? Orthodontic extrusion Remake the crown Add grooves Use stronger cement Extrusion increases crown length for retention. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) How long can PVS impression pouring be delayed? 1 month 1 day 1 hour 1 week PVS impressions remain stable for up to 1 week. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) How to manage a fractured FPD retainer? Monitor Cement with heavy occlusion Solder the fracture Remake the FPD Fractured retainers compromise integrity; remaking is necessary. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) What is the most aesthetic and least invasive option to replace an avulsed central incisor? Removable denture Maryland bridge Three-unit bridge Implant Maryland bridges are conservative and aesthetic. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) Which cusps shear in a patient with crossbite? Buccal (upper) and lingual (lower) All cusps equally Incisal edges only Palatal (upper) and buccal (lower) Crossbite causes shear forces on palatal upper and buccal lower cusps. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) Why should hemostatic agents avoid contact with tooth surfaces? To improve bonding To prevent soft tissue irritation To reduce sensitivity To avoid tooth discoloration Hemostatic agents can cause tooth discoloration if they contact the surface. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) What color neutralizes yellow in a restoration? Pink Blue Violet Green Violet counteracts yellow hues. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) Which material is unsuitable for temporary crowns on vital teeth? ZOE Polymethyl methacrylate Composite Bis-acrylic PMMA can generate excessive heat, risking pulp damage. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) What is the occlusal reduction for a PFM crown on a non-functional cusp? 2.5 mm 2.0 mm 1.5 mm 1.0 mm 1.5 mm ensures adequate strength and space for porcelain. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) How to prepare a veneer for a discolored, worn incisor? No incisal reduction Full coverage Reduce lingual only Incisal reduction + 1mm clearance Incisal reduction and clearance ensure proper function and aesthetics. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) Gingival inflammation post-cementation is likely due to: Poor marginal fit Allergic reaction Biological width violation Occlusal imbalance Violating biological width leads to chronic inflammation. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) A 70-year-old patient needs a crown for tooth #25 with stable maximum intercuspation but far from centric occlusion. On which position should the crown be fabricated? Neither Maximum intercuspation Centric occlusion Halfway between MI and CO The crown should align with the patient’s habitual occlusion (MI). 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) During CD delivery, a wax knife can be inserted from one side to the other in rest position. What should be done? Reline the denture Rebase the maxilla Adjust occlusion Redo the mandible This indicates improper mandibular denture fit. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) A patient has soreness and erythema beneath the CD. What is the etiology? Pulpitis Allergic reaction Denture stomatitis Increased VDO Denture stomatitis is caused by fungal infection or irritation. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) What is the purpose of the fovea and vibrating line in denture fabrication? Retention Stability Posterior palatal seal Aesthetics The fovea and vibrating line help create the posterior palatal seal. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) In an RPD class I case with stable contact in maximum intercuspation but discrepancy in centric relation, which position should be used? Maximum intercuspation Both Neither Centric relation Centric relation ensures proper jaw alignment for the RPD. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) Where should complete dentures be stored at night? Cold water Dry container Lukewarm water Denture cleanser Lukewarm water prevents warping and maintains hygiene. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) What is the term for equal force from the tongue and cheeks on a denture? Stability zone Retention zone Neutral zone Support zone The neutral zone balances forces for stability. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) A patient is missing upper right 4-7 and upper left 4-6. What is the Kennedy classification? Class II mod II Class III mod II Class IV mod I Class I mod II Bilateral edentulous areas with remaining teeth are Class II mod II. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) What type of indirect clasp is used in Kennedy class III cases? Aker clasp I-bar clasp Ring clasp Embrasure clasp Embrasure clasps are commonly used in Kennedy class III cases. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) A patient lost all incisors and will extract #25. How many rests and connectors are needed? 6 rests and 5 connectors 5 rests and 4 connectors 3 rests and 2 connectors 4 rests and 3 connectors The design requires 6 rests and 5 connectors for stability. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) A patient has anterior and tuberosity undercuts. How should this be managed for complete dentures? Neither Relieve posterior undercut Remove anterior undercut Both Both adjustments are needed for proper denture fit. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) What is the first thing to check during complete denture delivery? Fitting Speech Occlusion Aesthetics Proper fitting ensures comfort and function. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) What is the primary function of a surveyor in RPD design? Determine path of insertion Check occlusion Evaluate aesthetics Measure undercuts Surveyors help determine the optimal path of insertion. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) A Class I Kennedy case has spaces in the mandible. Which major connector is used? Lingual bar Sublingual bar Labial bar Interrupted lingual plate Interrupted lingual plates are used for flexibility. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) An impression is thick on one side and thin on the other. What is the reason? Tray distortion Incorrect tray position Patient movement Uneven material mix Improper tray positioning causes uneven material distribution. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) What is the treatment for an adult with narrow maxilla and incisor crowding? Orthognathic surgery Extraction of premolars Expansion without extraction Distalization of molars Extraction of premolars creates space for alignment in crowded cases. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) A patient with 1mm gingival recession on lower incisors undergoing orthodontics. Which movement increases recession? Lingual movement Labial movement Extrusion Intrusion Labial movement of lower incisors worsens recession. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) How often should rapid expansion be activated? Every other day Once a day Once a week Twice a day Rapid expansion requires daily activation for effective results. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) A 20-year-old patient with Class 2 malocclusion, 6mm overjet, and normal mandibular alignment. What is the treatment? Expansion Extraction upper 5 Growth modification Extraction upper 4 Extraction of upper first premolars is effective for reducing overjet. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) Which orthodontic movement causes more resorption in upper teeth? Rotation Intrusion Extrusion Tipping Intrusion of upper teeth often leads to greater root resorption. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) A 13-year-old with posterior crossbite. What is the treatment? Rapid palatal expansion Hass expansion No treatment Slow expansion Hass appliances are used for posterior crossbites. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) What is the camouflage treatment for Class II without crowding? Functional appliance Extraction upper 4 Extraction lower 4 Headgear Extraction of upper first premolars is preferred for Class II without crowding. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) A patient has a protrusive mandible, maxillary deficiency, crowding, and impacted canine. What is treated first? Protrusive mandible Crowding Impacted canine Maxillary deficiency Maxillary expansion addresses constriction and crowding. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A 2-year-old with thumb sucking. How is this managed? Orthodontic pacifier Palatal crib Behavioral therapy Wait until age 8 Thumb sucking is normal in toddlers and usually resolves by age 4. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) A patient undergoing 36-month orthodontic treatment. Which teeth are most prone to root resorption? Lower canine Upper canine Lower central incisor Upper central incisor Upper central incisors are most susceptible to root resorption. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) An apprehensive child with multi-surface caries in a primary molar needs restoration. Best option? Amalgam Composite SSC GIC SSC is efficient for extensive caries in uncooperative patients. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) A 3-year-old with active white caries is at what caries risk level? Extreme risk Low risk Moderate risk High risk Active white spots indicate high caries risk. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) Why are lower anterior teeth often unaffected in early childhood caries (ECC)? Thicker enamel Salivary flow Less plaque accumulation Tongue protection The tongue’s movement cleanses lower anteriors. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) How does the crown of primary teeth differ from permanent teeth? More bulbous Thinner enamel Larger occlusally Larger MD width Primary teeth have broader occlusal tables. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) Where should the loop be placed in a band and loop space maintainer? Above the contact area Below the contact area At the contact area On the gingival margin The loop is placed at the contact area to ensure proper stabilization. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) Why is caution needed during primary tooth preparation? Large pulp horn Small pulp chamber Thin enamel Brittle dentin Large pulp horns increase risk of exposure during preparation. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) A 10-year-old has spacing between anterior teeth. Management? No treatment Fixed orthodontics Functional appliance Composite build-up Spacing often resolves with permanent tooth eruption. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) At what age does third molar crown formation begin? 16 years 17 years 14 years 15 years Third molar crown formation starts around 16 years. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) What is the recommended fluoride dosage for a 3-year-old pediatric patient? 0.50 mg/day 0.25 mg/day 0.75 mg/day 1.00 mg/day 0.50 mg/day is the standard supplemental dose for this age. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A pediatric patient with multiple caries and negative behavior needs treatment. Best option? Swab + fluoride gel Swab + fluoride varnish Prophylaxis + fluoride gel Prophylaxis + fluoride varnish Fluoride varnish is quick and effective for uncooperative patients. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) Flap choice for 3-wall defect between #44-45? Pedicle flap Envelope flap Semilunar flap Papilla preservation flap Preserves interdental papilla for optimal healing. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) Treatment for periodontal abscess in diabetic patient? Systemic antibiotics Both Local debridement Observation Diabetics require both local treatment and possible antibiotics. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) When does dental plaque begin to form? 6 hours 24 hours 12 hours 48 hours Plaque formation starts within 12 hours after cleaning. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) Which tooth is most difficult to scale? Upper canine Upper 4 Distobuccal root of upper 7 Lower molar Upper 4’s root anatomy makes scaling challenging. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) What is an indication for resective osseous surgery? Gingival recession Three-wall defect Furcation involvement One-wall defect Three-wall defects respond well to resective osseous surgery. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) Minimal bone-to-restoration margin distance? 2mm 4mm 5mm 3mm 3mm maintains biological width (1mm epithelium + 1mm CT + 1mm sulcus). 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) Gingival enlargement covering 3/4 crown is class? Class 1 Class 2 Class 4 Class 3 Class 3 covers >1/2 but not entire crown (Seymour classification). 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) Best flap for lesion distal to lower second molar? Pedicle Semilunar Envelope Intrasulcular Intrasulcular flaps provide optimal access to posterior lesions. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) Complication of impacted canine exposure? Ankylosis Pulp necrosis Root resorption Recession Surgical trauma often causes labial gingival recession. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) What treatment is needed after orthodontic removal? SRP Crown RCT Restoration Scaling and root planing (SRP) is essential after orthodontic treatment. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) Cause of swelling after scaling in diabetic patient? Trauma Allergic reaction Infection Unremoved calculus Residual subgingival calculus can cause delayed healing in diabetics. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) Bacteria causing horizontal bone loss in 60-year-old? Porphyromonas Streptococci Actinomyces Fusobacterium Actinomyces species are linked to chronic horizontal bone loss. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) Which cells repair pulp tissue after injury? Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells Fibroblasts Cementoblasts Odontoblasts Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells differentiate to regenerate pulp. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) Gracey 11/12 curette use? Mesial of #36 Buccal of #24 Lingual of #41 Distal of #36 Designed for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) Interpretation of 40% plaque and 20% BOP scores? Lacks knowledge/motivation Attempts but ineffective Knows technique but inconsistent Excellent oral hygiene High plaque score indicates fundamental behavioral/oral hygiene deficiencies. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) Management of gingival abscess? Both Incision and drainage Antibiotics Observation Gingival abscesses require drainage and possible antibiotics. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) Instrument grasp shown in image? Standard pen grasp Palm-thumb grasp Modified pen grasp Inverted grasp Modified pen grasp provides optimal control for scaling. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) Bone architecture with papilla loss exceeding other areas? Reversed architecture Flat architecture Normal architecture Inverted architecture Reversed architecture shows greater interdental than radicular bone loss. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) Management of gingival recession with CEJ caries? Monitoring Restoration first Gingival graft first Combined procedure Gingival graft should precede restoration to ensure proper tissue coverage. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) What is the color coding sequence of UNC-15 probe? Every 5mm (5,10,15) Alternating colors Every 3mm Every 1mm UNC-15 probes mark every 5mm for easy depth assessment. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) What is the minimum mesiodistal width needed to place two 4 mm implants next to a natural tooth? 11 mm 8 mm 14 mm 16 mm Formula: 1.5 (tooth gap) + 4 (implant) + 3 (gap) + 4 (implant) + 1.5 (tooth gap) = 14 mm. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) An implant at #36 shows pus, horizontal bone loss, and mobility. What is the treatment? Bone grafting Remove (failure) Remove and reimplant Antibiotics Purulent discharge and bone loss indicate irreversible failure. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What is visible in a two-stage implant during healing? Crown Abutment screw Healing abutment Fixture Healing abutments protrude through the gum for soft tissue shaping. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) What describes the functional bond between bone and implant? Fibrointegration Adhesion Osseointegration Ankylosis Osseointegration is direct bone-to-implant contact without soft tissue. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) A patient has 7 mm between the bone floor and sinuses and requests implants. What is the appropriate procedure? Internal sinus lift Short implants External sinus lift Bone grafting Internal sinus lift is sufficient for 7 mm residual bone height. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) If the intra-arch distance is 10 mm, which type of implant abutment can be placed? Custom abutment Hybrid retained Cement retained Screw retained Cement-retained abutments are preferred for smaller intra-arch distances due to better esthetics. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) What distinguishes one-stage from two-stage implants? All of the above Number of surgeries Abutment visibility Healing time Two-stage implants require a second surgery to expose the fixture. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) A picture shows an implant too close to a tooth. What is the likely cause of failure? Poor osseointegration Proximity to adjacent tooth Overloading Peri-implantitis Implants <1.5 mm from teeth risk bone loss and failure. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) How to prevent a screwdriver from being ingested during implant placement? Assistant’s hand Magnetic holder Gauze padding Floss tied to driver Floss secures the screwdriver to the tray. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) A patient reports implant mobility during eating. The image shows space above the fixture. What is the cause? Crown fracture Failed osseointegration Lack of keratinized tissue Loose implant screw Mobility with space indicates screw loosening, not necessarily failure. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) What is the current success rate of dental implants in recent studies? 95%+ 91–94% 85–90% <85% Modern implants have ≥95% success with proper planning. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) What is missing in the diagnostic workup for an upper central incisor implant? Diagnostic wax-up Fully adjustable articulator CBC MRI Wax-ups and surgical templates ensure precise implant positioning. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) For a 5 mm implant in the anterior region, which option is most suitable? Mini implant Screw implant with angulated abutment Cemented implant Hybrid abutment Angulated abutments compensate for limited space and improve esthetics. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) Which image represents a two-stage implant procedure? Submerged fixture Immediate loading Healing abutment visible No temporary teeth Two-stage implants leave no temporary teeth during osseointegration. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) Which bone type is safest for implant placement? D1 D4 D3 D2 D2 balances density and vascularity, reducing failure risks. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) You share photos of a pediatric patient on social media. What principle is violated? D. Justice C. Autonomy A. Confidentiality B. Privacy Privacy is violated by sharing a minor’s images without consent. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) What is the correct order for processing instruments with composite residue? Disinfect, clean, sterilize Clean, disinfect, sterilize Sterilize, clean, disinfect Soak in bleach Cleaning must precede disinfection and sterilization. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) An amnesiac emergency patient needs treatment but has no relatives. Who decides? D. A hospital committee C. A judge B. The dentist A. The patient Dentists act in the patient’s best interest if they lack capacity and have no proxy. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) How should an extracted tooth be prepared for educational use if restoration-free? A. 40-minute autoclave D. UV light exposure B. Soak in bleach C. Dry heat Autoclaving ensures sterility without chemical residues. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) You extracted tooth 15 instead of the referred tooth 14. What should you do? Tell the patient it's fine Apologize without action Blame the referral Inform the orthodontist Communication with the referring professional is essential for corrective action. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) What should be done with a prophy cup after use? D. Reused after cleaning B. Sterilized A. Discarded C. Soaked in disinfectant Prophy cups are single-use to prevent cross-contamination. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) What is the first item to remove when doffing PPE? D. Goggles B. Gown A. Gloves C. Mask Gloves are the most contaminated and should be removed first. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) A girl wants a Hollywood smile, but you disagree with the approach. What should you do? Discuss alternatives with her Ask her family to convince her Refuse to treat her Bring another doctor to persuade her Patient autonomy and informed consent are key in elective procedures. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) A nurse returns to work 15 days after an injury. What should they do? Inform administration Quit Retrain Resume duties Administration must assess fitness for duty. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) What PPE is required for treating a TB patient? Gloves only Surgical mask N95 respirator Face shield N95 masks filter airborne TB bacteria. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) A 55-year-old woman wants an implant but refuses to hear about complications. What should you do? Obtain consent from her son Refer her to another doctor Proceed as she wishes Decline the procedure Informed consent is non-negotiable; alternatives must be explored. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) A patient had unnecessary restorations on seven teeth by another dentist. What is the most appropriate action? Confront the previous dentist Document it in the patient's file Report to a specialized organization Inform the patient The patient has the right to know about unnecessary procedures. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) An elderly diabetic in a coma needs amputation, but his children disagree. Who gives consent? A. The court C. The spouse B. The eldest child D. The medical team Courts resolve disputes when family members cannot agree. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) Which bacteria is typically found in dental unit waterlines? Legionella Salmonella Staphylococcus E. coli Legionella is a waterborne pathogen. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) When should hand scrubbing be performed? C. Before and after treating patients A. Before treating patients B. After treating patients D. Only when hands are visibly soiled Hand hygiene is critical before and after patient contact. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) Two boys under 18 request ortho treatment. Whose consent is needed? A. Their parents D. No consent required C. A school official B. The boys themselves Parental consent is required for minors’ non-emergency care. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) A doctor fails to provide treatment options to a patient. Which principle is violated? C. Veracity B. Beneficence D. Justice A. Autonomy Autonomy requires patients to be informed to make decisions. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) A doctor washes hands for 60 seconds, then uses alcohol gel for 30 seconds. How can this be improved? Check for contamination Dry hands first Add more gel Increase time Drying hands enhances alcohol gel efficacy. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) A patient arrived half an hour late and insisted on being seen or would call the authorities. The doctor refused. Why? The patient's case was non-urgent The clinic was closed The doctor's shift was over The patient was rude Doctors have the right to enforce clinic policies, including appointment times. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) How long should hand sanitizer be applied? C. 20-30 seconds B. 15-20 seconds A. 5-10 seconds D. 1 minute 20-30 seconds ensures full coverage and effectiveness. Your score is The average score is 40% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Share Facebook X LinkedIn Pinterest Reddit Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Share via Email Print
