SDLE MCQ R11 SDLE Mock Test Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test R11 SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz R11 SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 11% Restorative : 5% Prosthodontics : 12% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 11% Periodontics and Implant : 13% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 11% Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients : 34% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) What causes “sealer puffiness” in an endo-treated tooth with a lateral lesion? Periapical abscess Overfilled canal Lateral canal Vertical root fracture Sealer puffiness often indicates a lateral canal. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) An 8-year-old patient has severe pain in tooth #6. What is the treatment? RCT Extraction Pulpotomy Apexogenesis Apexogenesis preserves pulp vitality in immature teeth. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) A child has an avulsed primary tooth stored in milk and arrives immediately. What is the management? Wait for parents Reimplant without consent Contraindicated to reimplant Splint the tooth Reimplantation is contraindicated for primary teeth. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) A patient has fractures in enamel, dentin, and exposed pulp. What is the treatment? Extraction Indirect pulp cap Pulpotomy Direct pulp cap Direct pulp capping is indicated for exposed vital pulp. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) What is the access cavity shape for an upper first premolar? Oval Triangular Round Rectangular Most maxillary premolars have an oval access cavity. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) What is the shape of the access opening for a central incisor? Rectangular Round Oval Triangular or trapezoid The access opening for central incisors is typically triangular or trapezoid. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) A patient returns with pain 2 days after RCT. No intervention is needed. What is the next step? Prescribe antibiotics Increase ibuprofen dose Combine ibuprofen with acetaminophen Replace ibuprofen with acetaminophen Combination therapy is more effective for pain control. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) Why is NaOCl better than CHX for irrigation? It is cheaper It has longer residual effect It is less toxic It dissolves organic tissue NaOCl dissolves organic tissue, enhancing cleaning. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) A 14-year-old patient has tooth 21 intruded 5 mm. How to treat? Surgical extrusion RCT Splint the tooth Orthodontic extrusion Orthodontic extrusion is preferred for intruded teeth. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) What is the definition of concussion? Fracture of the root Injury to the tooth and ligament without displacement or mobility Tooth displacement Pulp necrosis Concussion involves injury without displacement or mobility. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) A file separated in the apical third, and attempts to bypass it failed. What should be done? Obturate to the length of the instrument Leave the tooth open Extract the tooth Perform surgical treatment Obturate to the length of the instrument if bypassing fails. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) Which nerve fiber is responsible for sharp pain? Myelinated A-delta fibers A-beta fibers B fibers Unmyelinated C fibers A-delta fibers transmit sharp, localized pain. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) Which tooth most commonly shows 8 root configurations? Mandibular first molar Maxillary second premolar Mandibular second premolar Maxillary first molar The maxillary second premolar (upper 5) can have 8 root configurations. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) What is the fixation time for intrusion? 2 weeks 4 weeks 8 weeks 6 weeks The recommended fixation time is 4 weeks. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) What instruments are used to remove GP? H-files and Gates Glidden Rotary files K-files and reamers Ultrasonic tips H-files and Gates Glidden are the standard tools. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) An endo-treated tooth is short and needs re-RCT. What type of bacteria is likely present? Lactobacillus Enterococcus faecalis Porphyromonas gingivalis Streptococcus mutans E. faecalis is commonly found in retreated canals. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) What causes discoloration in an endo-treated traumatized tooth? Residual pulp tissue Debris in dentinal tubules Bacteria in dentinal tubules Blood components in tubules Blood pigments from trauma seep into dentinal tubules, causing discoloration. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) A patient has sensitivity to cold and a crack on the mesial surface. Pain stops upon stimulus removal. What is the pulp condition? Necrotic pulp Normal pulp Reversible pulpitis Irreversible pulpitis Reversible pulpitis is characterized by transient pain. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) A patient presents with severe pain in tooth #46, sensitive to cold but negative to percussion. What is the emergency treatment? Remove caries + filling Direct pulp capping Pulpotomy Extraction Pulpotomy is the emergency treatment for irreversible pulpitis. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) How to confirm vertical root fracture? Percussion test Exploratory surgery CBCT Transillumination Exploratory surgery provides definitive diagnosis. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) Which material is most toxic? CAH MTA Ledermix Ferric sulfate Ferric sulfate is cytotoxic to tissues. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) A patient has a horizontal fracture between the middle and apical third with an osseous lesion. The tooth does not respond to cold. What is the treatment? RCT for both segments Splint the two segments Extract the tooth RCT for the coronal segment Only the coronal segment requires RCT. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) Which irrigation material has the best antibacterial properties? Saline Sodium hypochlorite Chlorhexidine EDTA NaOCl is the most effective antibacterial irrigant. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) Why remove the access filling temporarily? To reassess canal anatomy To reduce cost To check hemostasis To avoid overfilling Temporary removal ensures proper hemostasis before final obturation. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) What is the cause of a pinkish tooth? External resorption Enamel hypoplasia Internal resorption Caries Internal resorption leads to vascular changes causing pink discoloration. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) Which root rarely has two canals? Distal root of lower 6 Distobuccal root of upper 6 Palatal root of upper 6 Mesial root of lower 6 The distobuccal root of maxillary molars seldom has two canals. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) What is the prognosis for vertical root fracture (VRF) in a single tooth? Poor Hopeless Questionable Good VRF typically has a hopeless prognosis. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) What type of sealer is AH26? Resin Calcium hydroxide Glass ionomer Zinc oxide AH26 is a resin-based sealer. 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) A patient has broken instruments in the apical third but is asymptomatic after 3 months. What is the management? Extraction Surgical intervention Non-surgical retreatment Follow-up Asymptomatic cases with broken instruments can be monitored. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) What is the recommended irrigation solution for an open apex? EDTA and NaOCl H2O2 and CHX CHX and NaOCl H2O2 and NaOCl EDTA and NaOCl are used for their combined ability to clean and disinfect the canal. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) For a composite restoration with 0.5 mm of remaining dentin, what should be placed? Dentin bonding system only Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE) cement Calcium hydroxide GIC Dentin bonding system is sufficient for minimal remaining dentin. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) Priority in treating large vs. small caries: Simultaneous restoration No treatment Restore large first Restore small first Large caries pose higher risk of pulp involvement. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) Pt with upper 6,7 shallow amalgam restorations has dull pain below eye. Cause? Irreversible pulpitis Cracked tooth Sinusitis Periodontitis Pain referred from sinusitis often mimics toothache. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) Post-brace tooth discoloration treatment: Veneers Internal bleaching External bleaching Microabrasion Microabrasion removes surface stains (macroabrasion is ideal but not listed). 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) Preventive resin restoration for fissure caries: Compomer Resin composite RMGIC GIC Resin composites are durable for preventive restorations. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) Correct position for amalgam pin: Parallel to tooth long axis Perpendicular to cavity Diagonal placement Parallel to enamel-dentine junction Pins should align with tooth structure to avoid stress. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) A patient drinks soda daily. Which non-carious lesion is likely? Erosion Abfraction Abrasion Hypoplasia Acidic drinks cause erosion. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) Fractured mesial cusp on molar with composite: management? Crown Extract Onlay Inlay Onlays cover cusps and conserve tooth structure. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) The main composition of dentin is: Water Lipids Hydroxyapatite (non-organic) Collagen fibers Hydroxyapatite is the primary inorganic component. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) Gold onlays on #13,14; pain on biting + chipped canine edge. Cause? Galvanism High occlusion Cracked tooth Sinusitis High occlusion causes trauma to opposing teeth. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) Management of weak ridge after Class II caries removal: Remove ridge Place matrix band Monitor Reinforce with GIC Weak ridges risk fracture; removal prevents future issues. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) X-rays for low-caries-risk 9-year-old recall: 2 periapicals + 2 bitewings None needed Full-mouth series Panoramic + 2 bitewings No x-rays needed for low-risk patients without symptoms. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) Most durable material for foundation restoration in broken-down molars: GIC Composite resin Amalgam Compomer Amalgam provides strength for core build-ups. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) Food impaction due to occlusal wear on proximal surfaces is caused by: Embrasure size Proximal contact issue Occlusal contact Poor restoration contour Open proximal contacts allow food trapping. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) Best diagnostic tool for incipient smooth surface caries: Transillumination Bitewing Periapical Diagnodent Bitewings detect early interproximal caries. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) Occlusal contact placement for bruxism patient: Smooth concave fossa Deep fossa No contact Light contact Concave fossa distributes forces evenly, reducing deflection. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) Bur for amalgam removal: Finishing bur Steel Diamond Carbide Carbide burs cut amalgam efficiently. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) Treatment order for #47 (sensitivity, calculus, impacted #38): Scale → restore → extract Extract → restore → scale Restore → scale → extract Monitor Scaling first reduces inflammation for accurate diagnosis. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) Acid-base reaction material: GIC Amalgam Composite ZOE GIC sets via acid-base reaction between glass and polyacid. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) Cement causing ceramic fractures: Resin cement Zinc phosphate Polycarboxylate GIC GIC’s rigidity stresses brittle ceramics. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) Disadvantage of ZOE: Allergic potential Weak strength Poor adhesion Long setting time ZOE can cause allergic reactions in some patients. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) Polyether impression material property: Absorbs water and expands Better stability than PVS Worse rigidity than polysulfide Worse stability than polysulfide Polyether absorbs water, causing dimensional changes. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) Cavity depth less than 0.5 mm in composite requires: GIC base Calcium hydroxide liner ZOE cement Only dentin bonding system Shallow cavities only need bonding for adhesion. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) Generation of etch-primer-bond adhesive system: 4th 7th 5th 6th 4th-gen systems involve separate etching, priming, and bonding steps. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) Chemo-mechanical tooth wear is termed: Abrasion Erosion Abfraction Attrition Erosion is chemical wear, e.g., from acids. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) When should shade selection for restoration be done? After finishing During polishing Before rubber dam application After anesthesia Shade matching is accurate before dehydration from rubber dam. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) When remaining dentin above pulp is less than 0.5mm, what material is used? Calcium hydroxide liner Composite resin GIC ZOE cement Calcium hydroxide protects the pulp in deep cavities. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) Class III cavities are located: Occlusal pits Proximal of posteriors Proximal of anteriors Gingival third Class III affects anteriors’ proximal surfaces. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) Instrument for sharpening angles in Class II prep: Spoon excavator Gingival trimmer Hatchet Chisel (angle former) Angle former creates precise line angles. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) Bone loss near overhang amalgam is caused by: Occlusal trauma Food impaction + plaque retention Allergic reaction Systemic disease Overhangs retain plaque, leading to periodontitis. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) Why choose a white shade after rubber dam placement? Enamel permeability + inorganic Enamel permeability Enamel organic content Dentin color Rubber dam dehydrates enamel, affecting shade. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) Woman requests amalgam removal due to health concerns: Remove all immediately Educate on safety Refer to specialist Staged removal Amalgam safety is evidence-based; education is priority. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) Pain from overhang restoration is due to: Pulpitis Food impaction Cracked tooth Sinusitis Overhangs trap food, causing gingival irritation. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) Why remove smear layer during RCT? Prevent discoloration Reduce postoperative pain Easier sealer removal Enhance sealer penetration Smear layer blocks dentinal tubules; removal improves sealing. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) Best material for Class V cervical caries: Flowable composite Amalgam Macrofill composite Hybrid composite Flowable composites adapt well to cervical lesions. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) Cement with chemical bond to enamel: Zinc phosphate GIC Zinc polycarboxylate Composite Polycarboxylate bonds chemically to enamel. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) Histological feature of cervical caries: Sclerotic dentin Pulp inflammation Bacterial invasion Demineralized enamel Cervical caries shows sclerotic dentin. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) Management of food impaction after composite: Remove excess Monitor Replace restoration Add composite layer Poor contacts require restoration replacement. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) How to differentiate crack from craze line? Transillumination Cold test X-ray Percussion Transillumination highlights crack lines. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) Which is a high-risk caries factor? Fluorosis Using miswak only Good oral hygiene Open contact Open contacts trap food, increasing caries risk. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) Best root for post in maxillary molars: Palatal Fused roots Distobuccal Mesiobuccal Palatal root is longest and straightest for post placement. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) Wrinkled rubber dam holes indicate: Dam too thick Dam too small Incorrect clamp placement Holes too far apart Wrinkles arise from stretched dam material. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) Advantage of zinc oxide: Esthetic High strength Adhesive properties Fast resorption Zinc oxide resorbs quickly in tissues. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) Cement for fiber posts: ZOE GIC Temporary cement Resin Resin cement bonds well to posts and dentin. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) Management of pulp exposure during caries removal: RCT Direct capping MTA Indirect capping Direct capping is attempted for small exposures. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) Dentinal tubule diameter near pulp (µm): 4 3 2 1 Tubules widen near pulp (~2.5-3µm). 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) Lining for deep Class V cavity near pulp: Composite Calcium hydroxide Zinc phosphate GIC Ca(OH)2 protects pulp in deep cavities. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) Copper % in high-copper amalgam: 10% 4% 13% 2% High-copper amalgams contain ~13% copper for strength. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) Metamerism refers to: Bleaching effect Color mismatch under different light Tooth discoloration Restoration shrinkage Metamerism is color variation under different light sources. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) Management of amalgam overhang: Monitor Remove and replace restoration Finishing SRP Overhangs cause plaque retention and must be removed. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) The primary function of silane coupling agent is to: Prevent caries Reduce sensitivity Strengthen enamel Bind porcelain to tooth Silane bonds porcelain to resin/teeth. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) Extra buccal groove in crown prep for: Occlusal stability Retention Gingival health Esthetics Grooves enhance mechanical retention. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) Powered bleaching uses: Polyacrylic acid Carbamide peroxide Sodium perborate Hydrogen peroxide Hydrogen peroxide is the active bleaching agent. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) Problem caused by overhang: Pulp necrosis Tooth fracture Occlusal interference Gingival irritation Overhangs irritate gums and retain plaque. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) Final restoration after endo access through amalgam: Crown Temporary filling Composite Amalgam Amalgam is durable for posterior teeth post-endo. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) Pt wants to remove all amalgam due to health fears. Best approach: No intervention Partial removal with composite Remove all in one session Educate on amalgam safety Evidence shows amalgam is safe; patient education is key. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) Collagen type during pulp development: Type I Type II Type IV Type III Type I collagen dominates pulp extracellular matrix. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) Zinc phosphate contraindication: Low strength Poor esthetics Long setting time High solubility Solubility in oral fluids limits its use. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) Dentin primer function: Wet dentin for bonding Reduce sensitivity Remove caries Strengthen enamel Primer prepares dentin for adhesive bonding. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) Why mix zinc phosphate on cold slab? Enhance adhesion Prolong working time Reduce shrinkage Prevent cracking Cold slows exothermic reaction, extending working time. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) A patient with metal-ceramic crowns has gingival inflammation. What is the cause? Metal allergy Cement excess Poor oral hygiene Biological width violation Subgingival margins violating biological width cause inflammation. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) How to prepare a veneer for a discolored, worn incisor? No incisal reduction Full coverage Incisal reduction + 1mm clearance Reduce lingual only Incisal reduction and clearance ensure proper function and aesthetics. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) How to manage a patient with a history of fractured ceramic crowns due to bruxism? Eliminate functional contact Increase crown strength Use metal crowns only Reduce functional cusp contact Eliminating functional contact prevents fractures in bruxism patients. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) After taking a PVS impression for a lower molar, a void is found on the buccal surface. What should you do? Modify the impression Retake the impression Ask the technician to correct it Ignore it Voids compromise accuracy; a retake is necessary. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) What is the occlusal reduction for a PFM crown on a non-functional cusp? 2.5 mm 2.0 mm 1.0 mm 1.5 mm 1.5 mm ensures adequate strength and space for porcelain. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) How to manage a fiber post with 2mm of remaining GP? Remove GP manually Refer for endodontic retreatment Proceed with post placement Use a shorter post Inadequate GP indicates endodontic failure; retreatment is needed. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) Which material is unsuitable for temporary crowns on vital teeth? Polymethyl methacrylate Composite Bis-acrylic ZOE PMMA can generate excessive heat, risking pulp damage. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) What describes the lightness or darkness of a color? Chroma Shade Value Hue Value refers to color lightness/darkness in dentistry. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) What is the treatment for a 9mm pocket on the MB root of #16? Extraction Flap surgery Deep scaling Root amputation Root amputation preserves the tooth while eliminating the defect. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) What color neutralizes yellow in a restoration? Green Pink Violet Blue Violet counteracts yellow hues. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) Which plaster type is used for RPD model casts? Type IV Type V Type III Type II Type II plaster is standard for RPD models. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) Which instrument measures PFM metal thickness during try-in? Iwanson caliper Ruler Micrometer Boley gauge Iwanson calipers provide precise metal thickness measurements. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) Which material is best for temporary anterior crowns? Composite Polyvinyl ethyl methacrylate Polymethyl methacrylate Bis-acrylic Bis-acrylic offers strength and aesthetics for temporaries. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) What causes gingival swelling and blunting around a crown? Allergic reaction Overcontoured crown Poor oral hygiene Cement excess Overcontouring irritates gingival tissues. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) Which option replaces a missing central incisor with minimal treatment? Removable partial denture Maryland bridge Implant Resin-bonded bridge Maryland bridges require minimal tooth preparation. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) What is the best option for a badly broken tooth 1mm above gingiva? Post and crown Extraction Crown lengthening Orthodontic extrusion Extrusion increases clinical crown length for restoration. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) During try-in of a PFM crown, the ceramic layer falls off the metal. What is the reason? Metal contamination Insufficient porcelain thickness Improper bonding Thermal expansion mismatch Improper bonding between ceramic and metal is the primary cause. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) What is a pier abutment? A cantilever abutment A splinted abutment A freestanding abutment A secondary abutment Pier abutments are freestanding and support prostheses independently. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) How to enhance aesthetics in crowns for upper premolars? Reduce functional cusps No reduction Full coverage Reduce non-functional cusps Non-functional cusp reduction improves aesthetics without compromising function. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) How to manage bleeding during impression with a temporary crown? Use epinephrine Delay the impression Use ferric sulfate Replace the crown Bleeding indicates tissue trauma; crown replacement allows healing. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) A patient has minimal interarch space (3 mm). What is the best treatment option? Fixed prosthesis Implant Removable denture Orthodontic closure Removable dentures are suitable for limited space. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) A smoker presents with an ill-fitting denture and erythematous palate. What is the diagnosis? Denture stomatitis Traumatic ulcer Allergic reaction Candidiasis Denture stomatitis is common in smokers and ill-fitting dentures. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) A Kennedy class III case has a mid-buccal undercut. Which clasp is suitable? Ring clasp I-bar clasp Circumferential clasp Embrasure clasp I-bar clasps are ideal for mid-buccal undercuts. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) An RPD abutment is tender to percussion. What is the cause? Periodontal disease Hyperocclusion Exposed dentine under rest Cracked tooth High occlusion can cause tenderness. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) An elderly osteoporotic patient with multiple missing teeth needs treatment. What is the best option? Removable denture Fixed prosthesis No treatment Implants Removable dentures are safer for osteoporotic patients. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) A mandibular RPD class II is missing #45-48 and #35-36. What is the ideal indirect retainer? Canine rests Proximal plates Lingual plate Occlusal rests Canine rests provide effective indirect retention. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) Tooth #11 is missing. What is the Kennedy classification? Class II Class I Class III Class IV Missing a single anterior tooth is Class III. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) A 63-year-old patient is uncomfortable with his denture. What adjustment is recommended? Linear occlusion Balanced occlusion Lingualized occlusion Monoplane occlusion Lingualized occlusion improves comfort for patients with ridge resorption. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) What component is placed on top of an implant in an overdenture? Locator Healing cap Ball attachment Abutment The abutment connects the implant to the overdenture. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) A 70-year-old patient needs a crown for tooth #25 with stable maximum intercuspation but far from centric occlusion. On which position should the crown be fabricated? Maximum intercuspation Halfway between MI and CO Neither Centric occlusion The crown should align with the patient’s habitual occlusion (MI). 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) An edentulous patient with complete dentures is asked to blow air with the nose closed. What is being checked? Lateral extension of PPS Anterior vibrating line of PPS Posterior vibrating line of PPS Midline of the palate This test checks the anterior vibrating line for proper seal. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) How many rests and retainers are needed for a class IV RPD? 1 rest, 1 direct 2 rests, 1 direct, 1 indirect 4 rests, 2 direct, 2 indirect 3 rests, 2 direct, 1 indirect Class IV RPDs typically require 4 rests (2 direct and 2 indirect). 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) What occlusion type is recommended for complete dentures? Canine guidance Organic occlusion Unilateral occlusion Bilateral balanced occlusion Bilateral balanced occlusion ensures stability during function. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) What happens if a rest seat is prepared before the guide plane? Increased retention Poor fit Framework distortion No effect The sequence is critical for proper fit and function. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) A patient lost 4 anterior teeth in an accident. What is the Kennedy classification? Class II Class IV Class I Class III Missing anterior teeth without distal extension is Class IV. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) A 30-year-old with retained #53 and impacted #13 (poor prognosis). What is the treatment? Leave #53 Extract and suture Crown on #53 Extract #13 and implant Extraction and implant replace non-viable canines. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) Which crossbite should be corrected first? None Posterior bilateral Posterior unilateral Anterior Posterior unilateral crossbites affect function and should be prioritized. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) A 14-year-old has space for right canine but not left. What is the treatment? Fixed prosthesis No treatment Canine extraction Orthodontic alignment Fixed prostheses replace missing or non-erupted canines. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) Why is a quad helix appliance beneficial? Faster treatment No patient activation needed Easy to clean Less discomfort Quad helix appliances are passive and require no patient cooperation. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) A patient with open bite requests faster orthodontic treatment. What adjunctive procedure is recommended? Alveolar decortication CTG Gingivectomy Occlusal adjustment Decortication accelerates tooth movement via regional acceleratory phenomenon. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) A patient with periodontal inflammation undergoes orthodontics. Where is the center of resistance? More apical More coronal At the crown At the root apex Inflamed periodontium shifts the center of resistance apically. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) What is the treatment for a gummy smile with 9mm incisor exposure at rest? Orthodontics Surgery Botox Lip repositioning Surgery is definitive for severe gummy smiles. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) What problem is a chin cup used to treat? Class II malocclusion Open bite Class III malocclusion Deep bite Chin cups restrain mandibular growth in Class III cases. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A patient with 1mm gingival recession on lower incisors undergoing orthodontics. Which movement increases recession? Intrusion Labial movement Lingual movement Extrusion Labial movement of lower incisors worsens recession. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) A patient with thin scalloped bone undergoes labial tooth movement. What is the risk? Recession Root resorption Mobility Ankylosis Thin biotypes are prone to gingival recession. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) Where is the oblique ridge located in primary teeth? Maxillary second molar Not present in primary teeth Mandibular first molar Maxillary first molar The oblique ridge connects cusps in maxillary first molars. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) A 3-year-old with active white caries is at what caries risk level? Low risk Extreme risk High risk Moderate risk Active white spots indicate high caries risk. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) A 9-year-old with destroyed first molars and no missing teeth needs extraction when: Third molar furcation is visible Pain is present Crowding exists Premolars are missing Third molar furcation allows for natural replacement. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) Why are lower anterior teeth often unaffected in early childhood caries (ECC)? Salivary flow Thicker enamel Tongue protection Less plaque accumulation The tongue’s movement cleanses lower anteriors. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) Why is caution needed during primary tooth preparation? Small pulp chamber Large pulp horn Thin enamel Brittle dentin Large pulp horns increase risk of exposure during preparation. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) What indicates an incomplete pulpotomy? Bleeding No bleeding Tooth mobility Pulp necrosis Persistent bleeding suggests incomplete pulp removal. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) A panoramic radiograph shows all teeth erupted except lower 5s and all 7s. Patient age? 12 years 13 years 10 years 11 years Lower second premolars erupt around 11-12 years. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) What does this image show in a pediatric patient? Ankylosis Supernumerary tooth Ectopic eruption of first molar Delayed eruption Ectopic eruption of the first molar is common. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) What is the best restoration for cooperative pediatric patients with primary teeth caries? Amalgam Adhesive resin SSC RMGIC Stainless steel crowns (SSC) are durable for primary teeth. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) An 8-year-old has unerupted central incisors due to a supernumerary tooth. Best management? Wait for eruption Extract + orthodontic extrusion Extract both teeth Extract supernumerary + follow-up Removing the supernumerary tooth allows natural eruption. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) What is the main cell type in established gingivitis? Plasma cell Lymphocyte Macrophage Neutrophil Plasma cells dominate chronic inflammation in gingivitis. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) Treatment for diabetic patient with swelling and pus at #46? SRP Extraction Antibiotics Incision and drainage Scaling and root planing is first-line treatment for periodontal abscesses. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) What is the probe angulation during measurement? 20 degrees 45 degrees 30 degrees 10 degrees 10 degrees ensures accurate pocket depth reading. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) Why do dentists advise patients to brush dentures daily? To prevent cross infections To remove plaque To avoid bad smell To avoid inflammation Daily brushing prevents bacterial buildup causing bad odor. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) Instrument modification for deep posterior pockets? Smaller handle Thicker blade Longer terminal shank Curved tip Extended shank improves access to posterior areas. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) Tooth with recent amalgam and Class 2 mobility indicates? Primary occlusal trauma Secondary occlusal trauma Periodontal abscess Root fracture Secondary trauma occurs with compromised periodontium. 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) What is the diameter of a periodontal probe tip? 1 mm 0.3 mm 0.5 mm 2 mm Standard periodontal probes have 0.5mm tips for accurate measurements. 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) Gingival enlargement in renal failure patients? Beta blockers NSAIDs Diuretics Calcium channel blockers CCBs cause fibrous gingival overgrowth. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) What is the ideal angle for scaling? 20-30 degrees 10-15 degrees 0 degrees 45-90 degrees 45-90 degrees optimizes cutting efficiency. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) Which tooth is most challenging for periodontal treatment? Upper canine Upper first premolar Lower central incisor Lower second molar Upper first premolar’s mesial root concavity complicates treatment. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) When does initial gingivitis begin? 14-21 days 4-7 days 1-2 days 2-4 days Initial gingivitis signs appear within 2-4 days of plaque accumulation. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) How is recession type II treated? Gingival graft Flap surgery Crown lengthening Guided tissue regeneration Gingival/connective tissue grafts are gold standard for type II recession. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) Gingival enlargement covering 3/4 crown is class? Class 3 Class 1 Class 2 Class 4 Class 3 covers >1/2 but not entire crown (Seymour classification). 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) Boundary between attached/unattached gingiva? Interdental papilla Free gingival groove Alveolar mucosa Mucogingival junction Free gingival groove marks the apical border of unattached gingiva. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) Which probe has 0.5mm markings at the tip? Williams probe Nabers probe WHO probe UNC probe WHO probes have 0.5mm increments at the tip. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) Management of persistent isolated pocket? Local antibiotic delivery Systemic antibiotics Surgical resection Observation Local antibiotics target refractory sites effectively. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) Treatment for short anterior teeth with normal periodontium? Composite bonding Gingival grafts No treatment needed Esthetic crown lengthening Crown lengthening improves crown-to-root ratio for esthetics. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) Best instrument for subgingival calculus? Gracey curette Ultrasonic scaler Piezoscaler Sickle scaler Gracey curettes access subgingival areas effectively. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) Diagnosis for post-scaling abscess? Herpetic lesion Gingival abscess Periodontal abscess Pericoronitis Periodontal abscesses commonly occur after scaling. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) What is the color coding sequence of UNC-15 probe? Every 1mm Every 3mm Alternating colors Every 5mm (5,10,15) UNC-15 probes mark every 5mm for easy depth assessment. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) For a remaining vertical bone height of 7 mm, which sinus lift method is preferred? External lift Zygomatic implants Internal lift Short implants Internal lifts are standard for 7 mm bone height. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) What is the required space between a natural tooth and an implant for papilla formation? <5 mm <6 mm <7 mm <8 mm Papilla rarely forms with gaps ≥5 mm. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What is visible in a two-stage implant during healing? Crown Healing abutment Abutment screw Fixture Healing abutments protrude through the gum for soft tissue shaping. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) A patient lost tooth #25 with sound adjacent teeth and 5 mm interarch space. What is the best treatment? Single implant screw-retained Resin-bonded bridge Single implant cement-retained FPD Screw-retained implants are ideal for limited interarch space (5 mm). 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) Which implant is best for a single-tooth crown? Mini implant Endosteal root form Subperiosteal Transosteal Endosteal root-form implants mimic natural tooth roots. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) A patient complains of a black line near an upper lateral implant. What is the cause? Labial implant position Gum recession Titanium shadow Poor hygiene Labial positioning causes grayish tissue discoloration. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) How to prevent a screwdriver from being ingested during implant placement? Floss tied to driver Assistant’s hand Gauze padding Magnetic holder Floss secures the screwdriver to the tray. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) What is the minimum recommended distance between two adjacent implants? 3 mm 4 mm 2 mm 1 mm 3 mm spacing prevents bone resorption and ensures soft tissue health. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) Which material is recommended for implant impressions? Polyether Addition silicone Alginate PVS Addition silicone offers high accuracy and dimensional stability. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) If the mesio-distal space is 7 mm, what is the ideal diameter for a single implant? 6 mm 5 mm 3 mm 4 mm A 4 mm implant allows for 1.5 mm clearance on each side (total 7 mm). 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) Which bone type is safest for implant placement? D3 D2 D4 D1 D2 balances density and vascularity, reducing failure risks. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) A patient has 7 mm between the bone floor and sinuses and requests implants. What is the appropriate procedure? Bone grafting Internal sinus lift External sinus lift Short implants Internal sinus lift is sufficient for 7 mm residual bone height. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) What is the ideal height to regain interdental papilla between two central incisor implants? 5 mm 3.4 mm 6 mm 1.5 mm 3.4 mm is the average papilla height for central incisors. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) What is the interocclusal distance required for cement-retained vs. screw-retained implants? 7 mm for cement, 5 mm screw 5 mm for both 10 mm for cement, 7 mm screw 3 mm for both Screw-retained implants require less vertical space (5 mm) compared to cement-retained (7 mm). 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) Radiolucency surrounds an implant at #45 in the image. What should be done? Wait for healing Adjust occlusion Refer to specialist Augmentation Radiolucency indicates failure; removal by a specialist is needed. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) How long should hand sanitizer be applied? D. 1 minute C. 20-30 seconds A. 5-10 seconds B. 15-20 seconds 20-30 seconds ensures full coverage and effectiveness. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) What is the definition of paternalism in healthcare? Encouraging patient independence Prioritizing patient autonomy Making decisions for patients against their wishes Ignoring patient preferences Paternalism involves overriding patient autonomy for perceived benefit. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) How is MRSA transmitted among 8 department members? Foodborne Airborne Indirect contact Direct contact MRSA spreads through direct skin contact or shared items. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) Which sterilization system is most effective? B. Steamed heat (autoclave) C. Ethylene oxide A. Dry heat D. Boiling water Autoclaving provides the highest level of sterility assurance. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) How should a cheek retractor be processed? Sterilization High-level disinfection Soap and water Disposal Semi-critical items require high-level disinfection. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) Which action does NOT violate confidentiality? D. Sharing records without consent B. Posting patient photos online C. Discussing cases in public areas A. Consulting professionals about patient cases Professional consultations are exempt if anonymized and necessary for care. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) Where should the sterilization indicator be placed? Top of the pack Bottom of the pack Outside the pack Middle of the pack The middle ensures even sterilization. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) You convince a mother to choose composite over amalgam for her child’s restoration. What principle is violated? D. Justice A. Autonomy C. Non-maleficence B. Beneficence Autonomy is violated if the parent’s preference is overridden. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) A patient accepts a treatment plan after review. This exemplifies: A. Autonomy B. Beneficence D. Justice C. Veracity Autonomy is demonstrated through informed consent. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) A patient needs surgery but refuses to hear about possible complications. What should you do? Delay the surgery Proceed without consent List complications and obtain written consent Inform her son instead Informed consent is mandatory, even if the patient is reluctant. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) You refer a patient with an endo problem to a specialist. Which principle is upheld? C. Confidentiality A. Autonomy B. Veracity D. Non-maleficence Veracity involves transparency about the need for specialist care. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) A patient vomits on the clinic floor, and towels are used to clean it. What type of waste is this? A. General waste B. Hazardous waste D. Chemical waste C. Infectious waste Organic material like vomit is hazardous due to potential pathogens. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) A patient refuses consent after discussing complications. What should you do? D. Refer to a specialist A. Proceed without consent C. Re-discuss to obtain consent B. Have her sign a waiver Revisiting the discussion may address concerns and lead to consent. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) When can confidential medical reports be disclosed? C. For research purposes B. For discussions with other doctors A. With patient consent D. For billing audits Sharing with other doctors is permitted for continuity of care. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) What is the proper way to send an impression to the lab? D. Placed in a glass container C. Wrapped in gauze B. Sealed biohazard plastic bag A. Sealed plastic bag A sealed plastic bag is standard for non-hazardous items. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) What is the definition of veracity? D. Compassion B. Loyalty C. Fairness A. Truthfulness Veracity requires honesty in patient-provider interactions. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) You add a relative as an extra patient at the end of your schedule. Which principle does this align with? C. Non-maleficence A. Justice B. Beneficence D. Autonomy Justice ensures fair distribution of resources (time, care). 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) An autistic patient with mental retardation arrives with a nurse. Who provides consent? A. The patient D. No consent needed B. The parents C. The nurse Parents/guardians consent for patients unable to do so themselves. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) What is the purpose of a biochemical tap in instrument sterilization? Measure pressure Ensure heat penetration Vacuum autoclave Monitor heat time The tap confirms heat reaches all instrument surfaces. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) A pregnant woman’s husband signs consent for her. What violation occurs? A. Autonomy B. Confidentiality D. Justice C. Non-maleficence Autonomy is violated if the patient is capable of consenting. Your score is The average score is 62% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. 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