SDLE MCQ R11 SDLE Mock Test Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test R11 SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz R11 SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 11% Restorative : 5% Prosthodontics : 12% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 11% Periodontics and Implant : 13% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 11% Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients : 34% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) A patient presents with severe pain in tooth #46, sensitive to cold but negative to percussion. What is the emergency treatment? Pulpotomy Direct pulp capping Remove caries + filling Extraction Pulpotomy is the emergency treatment for irreversible pulpitis. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) What is the best sterilization method for gutta-percha? Glutaraldehyde 5.25% NaOCl CHX Full-concentration NaOCl 5.25% NaOCl effectively sterilizes gutta-percha. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) For a K-file size 30 with a taper of 0.04, what is its diameter at D9? 0.66mm 0.90mm 0.30mm 0.50mm D0 (tip diameter) = 30/100 = 0.3 mm; D9 = (0.04 × 9) + 0.3 = 0.66 mm. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) What is the recommended irrigation solution for an open apex? CHX and NaOCl H2O2 and NaOCl EDTA and NaOCl H2O2 and CHX EDTA and NaOCl are used for their combined ability to clean and disinfect the canal. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) What causes discoloration in an endo-treated traumatized tooth? Bacteria in dentinal tubules Blood components in tubules Residual pulp tissue Debris in dentinal tubules Blood pigments from trauma seep into dentinal tubules, causing discoloration. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) A patient has transient sensitivity to hot/cold. Next step? Heat test EPT Cold test Percussion Percussion helps rule out periapical involvement. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) Which type of canal is most difficult to treat in endodontics? Fused roots Calcified Long, curved, narrow Short, straight, wide Long, curved, narrow canals are technically challenging. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) Which material promotes periapical healing? Corticosteroids Zinc phosphate Calcium hydroxide Eugenol Calcium hydroxide aids in healing due to its biocompatibility. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) An endo-treated tooth is short and needs re-RCT. What type of bacteria is likely present? Porphyromonas gingivalis Enterococcus faecalis Streptococcus mutans Lactobacillus E. faecalis is commonly found in retreated canals. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) What makes MTA radiopaque? Silica Bismuth Zinc Calcium Bismuth oxide in MTA provides radiopacity. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) You lost your working length due to a ledge. What should you do? Stop instrumentation Irrigate with NaOCl Use a pre-curved file (size 8-10) Force a larger file A pre-curved small file can help regain working length. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) In the SLOB technique, where is the lingual canal located? Buccal Distal Lingual Mesial SLOB rule: Same Lingual, Opposite Buccal. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) What is the most common cause of ledge formation? Irrigant choice Instrumentation technique Canal curvature File size Improper instrumentation technique is the primary cause of ledges. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) What is the cross-section shape of a Flex-R file? Square Triangular Rectangular Round Flex-R files have a triangular cross-section for flexibility. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) What is the appropriate way to remove GP? Use rotary files Use H-files and Gates Glidden Use heat Use ultrasonic vibration H-files and Gates Glidden are effective for GP removal. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) The master cone is size 50 and the flare is done for size 60. What will be the GP size? 0.50 taper 0.50 taper ISO 0.55 taper 0.60 taper The master cone determines the GP size, which is 0.50 taper. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) A patient has a traumatized anterior tooth with enamel, dentin, and pulp affected. What is this case? Complicated crown fracture Root fracture Uncomplicated crown fracture Luxation Pulp exposure makes it a complicated crown fracture. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) What is the splinting time for a horizontal root fracture between the apical and middle third? 2 weeks 4 weeks 8 weeks 6 weeks The recommended splinting time is 4 weeks. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) A child has a crown fracture with small pulp exposure and normal apical bone 3 hours after trauma. What is the treatment? Pulpotomy RCT Apexification Vital pulp therapy Vital pulp therapy is indicated for small exposures in young teeth. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) A patient has a crown fracture at the gingival margin with large pulp exposure 2 days after trauma. What is the treatment? Apexification Pulpotomy RCT Direct pulp capping RCT is needed for large exposures in mature teeth. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) What type of sealer is AH26? Glass ionomer Calcium hydroxide Zinc oxide Resin AH26 is a resin-based sealer. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) A patient has a horizontal radiolucent line in the middle of the root, a yellowish tooth, and a history of trauma. Cold test shows a late response. What is the diagnosis? Internal resorption Crown/root fracture Periapical abscess Root fracture The findings are consistent with a root fracture. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) A child has a traumatized anterior tooth that appears longer. What is the diagnosis? Extrusion Intrusion Fracture Avulsion The tooth appears longer due to extrusion. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) What is the access cavity shape for an upper first premolar? Round Oval Triangular Rectangular Most maxillary premolars have an oval access cavity. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) A patient came with a separated instrument. The doctor used ultrasonic to loosen the file. What is the next step? Remove the separated instrument Leave the file in place Perform apicoectomy Obturate the canal After loosening, the next step is to remove the separated instrument. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) During RCT, uncontrolled bleeding and lost WL indicate? Cracked root Calcified canal Instrument separation Perforation Sudden bleeding and WL loss suggest perforation. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) What measures pulp oxygen levels? Laser Doppler Pulp oximeter EPT Cold test Pulp oximetry assesses pulp vitality via oxygen saturation. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) A patient complains of dark tooth after RCT. What is the most probable cause? Debris in tubules Blood pigments in tubules Leaking restoration Bacterial infection Blood pigments in tubules are common after trauma (if mentioned in the question). 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) What is the splinting time for lateral luxation? 8 weeks 4 weeks 2 weeks 6 weeks The standard splinting time is 4 weeks. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) A patient has pain post-RCT with no intervention needed. Treatment? Steroid NSAID Antibiotic Muscle relaxant NSAIDs manage post-operative inflammation. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) Which is a high-risk caries factor? Using miswak only Open contact Fluorosis Good oral hygiene Open contacts trap food, increasing caries risk. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) Pain from overhang restoration is due to: Sinusitis Pulpitis Cracked tooth Food impaction Overhangs trap food, causing gingival irritation. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) Woman requests amalgam removal due to health concerns: Remove all immediately Educate on safety Refer to specialist Staged removal Amalgam safety is evidence-based; education is priority. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) Advantage of zinc oxide: Fast resorption Adhesive properties Esthetic High strength Zinc oxide resorbs quickly in tissues. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) For a composite restoration with 0.5 mm of remaining dentin, what should be placed? Dentin bonding system only GIC Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE) cement Calcium hydroxide Dentin bonding system is sufficient for minimal remaining dentin. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) Correct position for amalgam pin: Diagonal placement Parallel to tooth long axis Perpendicular to cavity Parallel to enamel-dentine junction Pins should align with tooth structure to avoid stress. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) When should shade selection for restoration be done? During polishing After anesthesia Before rubber dam application After finishing Shade matching is accurate before dehydration from rubber dam. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) The main composition of dentin is: Water Lipids Hydroxyapatite (non-organic) Collagen fibers Hydroxyapatite is the primary inorganic component. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) Management of weak ridge after Class II caries removal: Remove ridge Monitor Reinforce with GIC Place matrix band Weak ridges risk fracture; removal prevents future issues. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) X-rays for low-caries-risk 9-year-old recall: 2 periapicals + 2 bitewings Panoramic + 2 bitewings None needed Full-mouth series No x-rays needed for low-risk patients without symptoms. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) Why choose a white shade after rubber dam placement? Dentin color Enamel organic content Enamel permeability Enamel permeability + inorganic Rubber dam dehydrates enamel, affecting shade. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) Why mix zinc phosphate on cold slab? Prolong working time Enhance adhesion Reduce shrinkage Prevent cracking Cold slows exothermic reaction, extending working time. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) Cement with chemical bond to enamel: Zinc polycarboxylate Composite GIC Zinc phosphate Polycarboxylate bonds chemically to enamel. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) Preventive resin restoration for fissure caries: Compomer GIC RMGIC Resin composite Resin composites are durable for preventive restorations. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) Occlusal contact placement for bruxism patient: Light contact No contact Deep fossa Smooth concave fossa Concave fossa distributes forces evenly, reducing deflection. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) Bur for amalgam removal: Steel Finishing bur Carbide Diamond Carbide burs cut amalgam efficiently. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) Wrinkled rubber dam holes indicate: Incorrect clamp placement Dam too small Holes too far apart Dam too thick Wrinkles arise from stretched dam material. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) Pre-bleaching assessment: All of the above Evaluate existing restorations Check for caries Record shade Comprehensive assessment ensures safe bleaching. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) Polyether impression material property: Worse stability than polysulfide Better stability than PVS Worse rigidity than polysulfide Absorbs water and expands Polyether absorbs water, causing dimensional changes. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) Powered bleaching uses: Hydrogen peroxide Carbamide peroxide Sodium perborate Polyacrylic acid Hydrogen peroxide is the active bleaching agent. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) Treatment order for #47 (sensitivity, calculus, impacted #38): Extract → restore → scale Scale → restore → extract Monitor Restore → scale → extract Scaling first reduces inflammation for accurate diagnosis. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) Acid-base reaction material: Amalgam Composite ZOE GIC GIC sets via acid-base reaction between glass and polyacid. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) Why remove smear layer during RCT? Enhance sealer penetration Easier sealer removal Prevent discoloration Reduce postoperative pain Smear layer blocks dentinal tubules; removal improves sealing. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) Problem caused by overhang: Tooth fracture Pulp necrosis Occlusal interference Gingival irritation Overhangs irritate gums and retain plaque. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) Pt wants to remove all amalgam due to health fears. Best approach: No intervention Remove all in one session Partial removal with composite Educate on amalgam safety Evidence shows amalgam is safe; patient education is key. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) Bone resorption under amalgam is likely due to: Calculus Trauma from occlusion Bacterial invasion from overhang Amalgam allergy Overhangs cause plaque accumulation and bone loss. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) Cement causing ceramic fractures: Resin cement GIC Polycarboxylate Zinc phosphate GIC’s rigidity stresses brittle ceramics. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) Generation of etch-primer-bond adhesive system: 5th 4th 6th 7th 4th-gen systems involve separate etching, priming, and bonding steps. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) Best root for post in maxillary molars: Fused roots Palatal Mesiobuccal Distobuccal Palatal root is longest and straightest for post placement. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) Disadvantage of ZOE: Weak strength Poor adhesion Long setting time Allergic potential ZOE can cause allergic reactions in some patients. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) Chemo-mechanical tooth wear is termed: Abrasion Attrition Erosion Abfraction Erosion is chemical wear, e.g., from acids. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) Collagen type during pulp development: Type I Type IV Type II Type III Type I collagen dominates pulp extracellular matrix. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) Extra buccal groove in crown prep for: Occlusal stability Gingival health Retention Esthetics Grooves enhance mechanical retention. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) Lining for deep Class V cavity near pulp: Zinc phosphate Calcium hydroxide Composite GIC Ca(OH)2 protects pulp in deep cavities. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) Metamerism refers to: Tooth discoloration Restoration shrinkage Color mismatch under different light Bleaching effect Metamerism is color variation under different light sources. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) Histological feature of cervical caries: Bacterial invasion Demineralized enamel Pulp inflammation Sclerotic dentin Cervical caries shows sclerotic dentin. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) Management of amalgam overhang: Monitor Finishing Remove and replace restoration SRP Overhangs cause plaque retention and must be removed. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) Dentin primer function: Wet dentin for bonding Strengthen enamel Remove caries Reduce sensitivity Primer prepares dentin for adhesive bonding. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) Copper % in high-copper amalgam: 2% 10% 13% 4% High-copper amalgams contain ~13% copper for strength. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) Zinc phosphate contraindication: High solubility Long setting time Low strength Poor esthetics Solubility in oral fluids limits its use. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) Most durable material for foundation restoration in broken-down molars: Amalgam Composite resin Compomer GIC Amalgam provides strength for core build-ups. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) Cavity depth less than 0.5 mm in composite requires: GIC base Calcium hydroxide liner ZOE cement Only dentin bonding system Shallow cavities only need bonding for adhesion. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) A patient drinks soda daily. Which non-carious lesion is likely? Abrasion Erosion Abfraction Hypoplasia Acidic drinks cause erosion. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) When remaining dentin above pulp is less than 0.5mm, what material is used? GIC ZOE cement Composite resin Calcium hydroxide liner Calcium hydroxide protects the pulp in deep cavities. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) Instrument for sharpening angles in Class II prep: Chisel (angle former) Gingival trimmer Spoon excavator Hatchet Angle former creates precise line angles. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) Priority in treating large vs. small caries: No treatment Restore small first Simultaneous restoration Restore large first Large caries pose higher risk of pulp involvement. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) Throbbing pain under gold onlay (#45) with opposing amalgam: Galvanism High occlusion Periodontal abscess Cracked tooth Galvanic currents cause pain from dissimilar metals. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) Class III cavities are located: Gingival third Proximal of anteriors Proximal of posteriors Occlusal pits Class III affects anteriors’ proximal surfaces. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) Final restoration after endo access through amalgam: Amalgam Temporary filling Composite Crown Amalgam is durable for posterior teeth post-endo. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) Dentinal tubule diameter near pulp (µm): 3 2 1 4 Tubules widen near pulp (~2.5-3µm). 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) Pt with upper 6,7 shallow amalgam restorations has dull pain below eye. Cause? Periodontitis Sinusitis Irreversible pulpitis Cracked tooth Pain referred from sinusitis often mimics toothache. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) Best diagnostic tool for incipient smooth surface caries: Diagnodent Bitewing Transillumination Periapical Bitewings detect early interproximal caries. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) How to differentiate crack from craze line? X-ray Cold test Percussion Transillumination Transillumination highlights crack lines. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) Fractured mesial cusp on molar with composite: management? Extract Inlay Crown Onlay Onlays cover cusps and conserve tooth structure. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) Food impaction due to occlusal wear on proximal surfaces is caused by: Proximal contact issue Poor restoration contour Embrasure size Occlusal contact Open proximal contacts allow food trapping. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) Management of food impaction after composite: Replace restoration Remove excess Add composite layer Monitor Poor contacts require restoration replacement. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) Gold onlays on #13,14; pain on biting + chipped canine edge. Cause? Galvanism High occlusion Sinusitis Cracked tooth High occlusion causes trauma to opposing teeth. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) The primary function of silane coupling agent is to: Reduce sensitivity Prevent caries Bind porcelain to tooth Strengthen enamel Silane bonds porcelain to resin/teeth. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) Management of pulp exposure during caries removal: RCT Direct capping Indirect capping MTA Direct capping is attempted for small exposures. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) Bone loss near overhang amalgam is caused by: Food impaction + plaque retention Allergic reaction Systemic disease Occlusal trauma Overhangs retain plaque, leading to periodontitis. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) How to prepare a veneer for a discolored, worn incisor? No incisal reduction Reduce lingual only Incisal reduction + 1mm clearance Full coverage Incisal reduction and clearance ensure proper function and aesthetics. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) What is the treatment for a 9mm pocket on the MB root of #16? Deep scaling Extraction Flap surgery Root amputation Root amputation preserves the tooth while eliminating the defect. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) How long can PVS impression pouring be delayed? 1 day 1 week 1 month 1 hour PVS impressions remain stable for up to 1 week. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) What is the minimum metal thickness for a resin-bonded bridge retainer? 0.7 mm 1.5 mm 0.5 mm 1.1 mm 0.7 mm ensures strength without compromising adhesion. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) What is the maximum time for pouring alginate impressions? 1 day 15 minutes 3 hours 1 hour Alginate impressions distort quickly; pouring within 15 minutes is ideal. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) How many abutments are needed to replace teeth 24 and 25? 3 1 2 4 Two abutments (e.g., 23 and 26) typically suffice for a 2-unit FPD. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) What is a pier abutment? A freestanding abutment A splinted abutment A secondary abutment A cantilever abutment Pier abutments are freestanding and support prostheses independently. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) What is hemisection? Splitting a multi-rooted tooth Extracting half the tooth Root amputation Removing a root Hemisection involves splitting a tooth while retaining salvageable roots. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) Gingival inflammation post-cementation is likely due to: Occlusal imbalance Biological width violation Poor marginal fit Allergic reaction Violating biological width leads to chronic inflammation. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) What should a technician do if an extra white block is added to porcelain? Increase thickness Increase translucency Reduce firing temperature Increase white color Balancing the white color ensures natural aesthetics. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) How to enhance aesthetics in crowns for upper premolars? Reduce functional cusps Reduce non-functional cusps Full coverage No reduction Non-functional cusp reduction improves aesthetics without compromising function. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) A patient complains of visible veneer margins. Which margin placement is best for aesthetics and minimal inflammation? Subgingival 0.5 mm Subcrustal 0.5 mm Supragingival 0.5 mm At gingival margin level Supragingival margins enhance aesthetics and reduce inflammation. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) Why might a gold crown fail to seat during try-in? Tight proximal contacts Thermal shrinkage Improper occlusal reduction Inadequate cement space Tight contacts prevent full seating; adjustment is needed. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) What prep design is needed for a tooth with slight attrition? No prep Lingual chamfer Full shoulder Feather edge Lingual chamfer preps conserve tooth structure. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) How to manage a fractured FPD retainer? Remake the FPD Cement with heavy occlusion Solder the fracture Monitor Fractured retainers compromise integrity; remaking is necessary. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) What is a complication of improper retraction cord placement? Gingival enlargement Gingival recession Bleeding Tooth mobility Improper placement can traumatize gingiva, causing recession. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) Which pontic design offers superior aesthetics for replacing #15? Modified ridge lap Saddle Sanitary Ovate Ovate pontics mimic natural tooth emergence. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) What is the occlusal reduction for a PFM crown on a non-functional cusp? 1.5 mm 2.5 mm 2.0 mm 1.0 mm 1.5 mm ensures adequate strength and space for porcelain. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) Which material is best for temporary anterior crowns? Bis-acrylic Polymethyl methacrylate Polyvinyl ethyl methacrylate Composite Bis-acrylic offers strength and aesthetics for temporaries. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) A patient selects an unsuitable veneer shade. What should you do? Let the lab decide Choose the shade for her Refer to another doctor Use a default shade The dentist should guide shade selection for optimal aesthetics. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) What is Bennett movement? Lateral shifting Lateral working Lateral movement Protrusive movement Bennett movement is the lateral shift of the mandible. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) A patient lost all incisors and will extract #25. How many rests and connectors are needed? 6 rests and 5 connectors 4 rests and 3 connectors 5 rests and 4 connectors 3 rests and 2 connectors The design requires 6 rests and 5 connectors for stability. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) A patient has anterior and tuberosity undercuts. How should this be managed for complete dentures? Neither Remove anterior undercut Both Relieve posterior undercut Both adjustments are needed for proper denture fit. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) What is the purpose of the fovea and vibrating line in denture fabrication? Stability Posterior palatal seal Aesthetics Retention The fovea and vibrating line help create the posterior palatal seal. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) A Class I Kennedy case has spaces in the mandible. Which major connector is used? Interrupted lingual plate Sublingual bar Labial bar Lingual bar Interrupted lingual plates are used for flexibility. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) What is the easiest way to manage a broken occlusal rest? Use temporary adhesive Solder the rest Recast the framework Replace the rest Replacing the rest is the most straightforward solution. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) An RPD becomes ill-fitting. What should be done? Relining Replacement Adjustment Rebasing Relining improves fit without replacing the framework. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) In a Class II RPD, which element provides bracing for terminal abutments? Occlusal rest Guide plane Lingual reciprocals Minor connector Lingual reciprocals resist lateral forces. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) What happens if there is no contact between the minor connector and the rest? Poor retention Rest fracture Tooth mobility Framework fracture Lack of contact can lead to rest fracture due to stress concentration. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) A smoker presents with an ill-fitting denture and erythematous palate. What is the diagnosis? Traumatic ulcer Candidiasis Denture stomatitis Allergic reaction Denture stomatitis is common in smokers and ill-fitting dentures. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) What causes porosity in a denture base? All of the above Contaminated monomer Insufficient pressure Rapid polymerization Multiple factors can lead to porosity. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) A 63-year-old patient is uncomfortable with his denture. What adjustment is recommended? Lingualized occlusion Monoplane occlusion Linear occlusion Balanced occlusion Lingualized occlusion improves comfort for patients with ridge resorption. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) Which impression material is contraindicated for a diabetic patient with sulfite allergy? Silicone Polyether Alginate Polysulfide Polysulfide contains sulfites, which can trigger allergies. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) A patient has minimal interarch space (3 mm). What is the best treatment option? Implant Fixed prosthesis Removable denture Orthodontic closure Removable dentures are suitable for limited space. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) A pier abutment has an MOD amalgam. What should be done? Use a rigid connector Prepare rest on amalgam Avoid using as abutment Place a surveyed crown Surveyed crowns protect pier abutments from stress. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) White spots appear 2 weeks after debonding. What is the treatment? Fluoride gel No treatment Fillings Fluoride varnish Fluoride varnish reverses early demineralization. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) An 8-year-old with overgrown mandible and constricted maxilla. What is treated first? Chin cup for mandible No treatment Maxillary expansion Functional appliance Maxillary expansion addresses constriction before mandibular growth modification. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) What appliance is used for mandibular deficiency? Face mask Twin block Bionator Headgear Twin blocks are functional appliances for mandibular deficiency. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) What causes unilateral crossbite during lateral tooth eruption? Functional mandibular shift Abnormal chewing Abnormal swelling Tongue/cheek pressure Functional shifts during eruption lead to unilateral crossbites. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) A decreased ANB angle indicates which class? Class I Class III Class II None Lower ANB values correlate with Class III malocclusion. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) A cephalometric analysis shows SNA 80°, SNB 70°, and ANB 11°. What is the diagnosis? Maxillary retrognathism Mandibular protrusion Maxillary protrusion Mandibular retrognathism Low SNB indicates mandibular retrognathism. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) What is the treatment for Class 3 camouflage? Extraction lower 6 and upper 5 Extraction lower 4 and upper 5 Extraction upper 4 only No extraction needed Extraction of lower first premolars and upper second premolars is the standard approach for Class 3 camouflage. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) A 20-year-old patient with Class 2 malocclusion, 6mm overjet, and normal mandibular alignment. What is the treatment? Growth modification Extraction upper 4 Expansion Extraction upper 5 Extraction of upper first premolars is effective for reducing overjet. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A patient has 26mm space available but 25mm required. What is the diagnosis? None Spacing Crowding Bolton discrepancy Excess space indicates spacing. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) A patient has Class II molars bilaterally. What is the skeletal classification? Class III skeletal Class II skeletal Class I skeletal None Bilateral Class II molars indicate Class II skeletal malocclusion. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) A 9-month-old has an unerupted central incisor with a cyst. Management? Marsupialization Surgical enucleation Incision and drainage Follow-up Most cysts resolve spontaneously with eruption. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) How does parental over-protection during dental treatment affect a child? Causes discomfort No effect Worsens behavior Improves behavior Over-protection increases anxiety and uncooperativeness. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) If the available space is less than required, the condition is called: Crowding Rotation Diastema Spacing Negative space discrepancy indicates crowding. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) At what age does third molar crown formation begin? 15 years 16 years 17 years 14 years Third molar crown formation starts around 16 years. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) Which technique improves fissure sealant retention? No isolation Air abrasion Laser etching Acid etching Acid etching enhances sealant adhesion to enamel. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) A 10-year-old has an ankylosed primary second molar with no permanent successor. Best treatment? Wait until age 18 Extraction Refer to specialist Extract + space maintainer Specialist referral ensures proper long-term management. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) What is an indication for a celluloid crown in pediatric dentistry? Facial caries Root caries Incisal fracture Enamel hypoplasia Celluloid crowns are used for fractured incisors. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) Ecchymosis in the perioral area and soft palate with multiple caries suggests: Child abuse Nutritional deficiency Hyperactivity Autism Ecchymosis in these areas is a red flag for abuse. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) What does this image show in a pediatric patient? Ankylosis Delayed eruption Ectopic eruption of first molar Supernumerary tooth Ectopic eruption of the first molar is common. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A panoramic radiograph shows all teeth erupted except lower 5s and all 7s. Patient age? 12 years 11 years 10 years 13 years Lower second premolars erupt around 11-12 years. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) Diagnosis for swelling after scaling in diabetic patient? Gingivitis Cellulitis Periodontal abscess Periapical abscess Localized swelling post-scaling suggests periodontal abscess. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) Bone regeneration technique shown in CBCT? Ridge preservation GBR Socket grafting Block graft Block grafts are used for significant vertical/horizontal defects. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) Gingival enlargement covering 3/4 crown is class? Class 1 Class 3 Class 2 Class 4 Class 3 covers >1/2 but not entire crown (Seymour classification). 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) What does this image show? Gingival abscess Herpetic lesion Lichen planus Periodontal pocket Localized red swelling indicates gingival abscess. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) Treatment for Class II furcation? Tunnel preparation Extraction GTR SRP Guided Tissue Regeneration (GTR) is indicated for Class II furcations. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) When does initial gingivitis begin? 2-4 days 14-21 days 1-2 days 4-7 days Initial gingivitis signs appear within 2-4 days of plaque accumulation. 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) When does CAL equal PD? With bone loss With no recession With pocket formation With gingival hyperplasia CAL = PD when no recession exists (e.g., sulcus depth = attachment level). 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) What is the main cell type in established gingivitis? Neutrophil Lymphocyte Macrophage Plasma cell Plasma cells dominate chronic inflammation in gingivitis. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) Cause of painful implant with exposed metal collar? Poor oral hygiene Loss of epithelial attachment Prosthetic misfit Occlusal overload Exposed metal indicates breakdown of soft tissue seal around implant. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) What is the new term for “biological width”? Supracrustal tissue attachment Alveolar crest membrane Dentogingival complex Periodontal ligament zone “Supracrustal tissue attachment” is the updated terminology. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) Minimal distance from restoration to bone crest in furcation areas? 3-4mm 4-5mm 5-6mm 2-3mm 5-6mm prevents biological width violation in complex furcation anatomy. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) Treatment for short anterior teeth with normal periodontium? Composite bonding No treatment needed Gingival grafts Esthetic crown lengthening Crown lengthening improves crown-to-root ratio for esthetics. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) What is the probe angulation during measurement? 30 degrees 20 degrees 45 degrees 10 degrees 10 degrees ensures accurate pocket depth reading. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) Drug causing gingival hyperplasia? Calcium channel blockers Antibiotics Anticoagulants Beta blockers Nifedipine/amlodipine frequently induce gingival overgrowth. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) Boundary between attached/unattached gingiva? Alveolar mucosa Mucogingival junction Interdental papilla Free gingival groove Free gingival groove marks the apical border of unattached gingiva. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) Gracey 11/12 curette use? Mesial of #36 Buccal of #24 Distal of #36 Lingual of #41 Designed for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) How is recession type II treated? Flap surgery Crown lengthening Guided tissue regeneration Gingival graft Gingival/connective tissue grafts are gold standard for type II recession. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) What is the color coding sequence of UNC-15 probe? Alternating colors Every 3mm Every 5mm (5,10,15) Every 1mm UNC-15 probes mark every 5mm for easy depth assessment. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) Risk for thin scalloped gingival phenotype? No significant risk Recession Hyperplasia Pocket formation Thin tissues are prone to recession from mechanical trauma. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) Diagnosis for post-scaling abscess? Periodontal abscess Herpetic lesion Pericoronitis Gingival abscess Periodontal abscesses commonly occur after scaling. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) What is the most critical factor in choosing an implant? Periodontal health Cost Bone density Patient age Healthy periodontium ensures long-term implant success. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) Where should an implant be placed relative to the mental foramen? 5 mm posterior 2 mm posterior 5 mm anterior 2 mm anterior Implants must be ≥5 mm anterior to avoid nerve damage. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What is an advantage of screw-retained implants? Easier retrieval Better esthetics Faster healing Lower cost Screw-retained crowns are retrievable for maintenance. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) Which part is used in implant impressions? Analog Coping Screw Crown The analog replicates the implant’s position in the impression. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) Which image depicts a two-stage implant? Image D Image A Image C Image B Two-stage implants are submerged or show healing abutments. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) A patient reports implant mobility during eating. The image shows space above the fixture. What is the cause? Lack of keratinized tissue Crown fracture Failed osseointegration Loose implant screw Mobility with space indicates screw loosening, not necessarily failure. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) A patient missing tooth #36 has a 7 mm space between #35 and #37. What implant diameter is suitable? 4 mm 3 mm 5 mm 6 mm 4 mm implants fit 7 mm spaces with proper spacing (1.5 mm per side). 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) A picture shows an implant too close to a tooth. What is the likely cause of failure? Poor osseointegration Proximity to adjacent tooth Overloading Peri-implantitis Implants <1.5 mm from teeth risk bone loss and failure. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) A patient lost tooth #25 with sound adjacent teeth and 5 mm interarch space. What is the best treatment? FPD Single implant cement-retained Single implant screw-retained Resin-bonded bridge Screw-retained implants are ideal for limited interarch space (5 mm). 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) A patient has 7 mm between the bone floor and sinuses and requests implants. What is the appropriate procedure? Bone grafting Short implants External sinus lift Internal sinus lift Internal sinus lift is sufficient for 7 mm residual bone height. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) What is the buccolingual metal strap on an implant cast called? Screwdriver Healing cap Impression coping Analog The strap stabilizes the impression coping during mold creation. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) If the intra-arch distance is 10 mm, which type of implant abutment can be placed? Hybrid retained Screw retained Cement retained Custom abutment Cement-retained abutments are preferred for smaller intra-arch distances due to better esthetics. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) How to prevent a screwdriver from being ingested during implant placement? Gauze padding Assistant’s hand Floss tied to driver Magnetic holder Floss secures the screwdriver to the tray. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) For a remaining vertical bone height of 7 mm, which sinus lift method is preferred? Short implants Internal lift Zygomatic implants External lift Internal lifts are standard for 7 mm bone height. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) One of two adjacent implants shows bone loss after 3 months. What is the cause? Peri-implantitis Surgical trauma Occlusal overload Poor hygiene Localized bone loss suggests peri-implantitis, not systemic issues. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) A 17-year-old girl wants a diamond filling. What is required? D. No additional consent A. Parental informed consent B. Parental presence during treatment C. Court approval Minors generally need parental consent for elective procedures. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) An elderly diabetic in a coma needs amputation, but his children disagree. Who gives consent? C. The spouse A. The court B. The eldest child D. The medical team Courts resolve disputes when family members cannot agree. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) A doctor fails to provide treatment options to a patient. Which principle is violated? B. Beneficence A. Autonomy D. Justice C. Veracity Autonomy requires patients to be informed to make decisions. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) A 70-year-old cancer patient requests to stop treatment and be allowed to die. After persistent requests, the doctor agrees. What is this action called? Negligence Passive euthanasia Assisted suicide Active euthanasia Passive euthanasia involves withholding treatment to allow natural death. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) An autistic patient with mental retardation arrives with a nurse. Who provides consent? B. The parents A. The patient C. The nurse D. No consent needed Parents/guardians consent for patients unable to do so themselves. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) How should the dental chair light be managed for infection control? Sterilize after each use Clean at the end of the day Replace daily Cover with plastic between patients Plastic covers prevent cross-contamination between patients. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) What is the purpose of a biochemical tap in instrument sterilization? Monitor heat time Vacuum autoclave Ensure heat penetration Measure pressure The tap confirms heat reaches all instrument surfaces. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) A dentist posts a famous patient’s case and face on social media. What is violated? B. Confidentiality A. Privacy D. Veracity C. Autonomy Privacy is violated by exposing identifiable patient information. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) A pregnant woman’s husband signs consent for her. What violation occurs? A. Autonomy B. Confidentiality D. Justice C. Non-maleficence Autonomy is violated if the patient is capable of consenting. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) What is the definition of autonomy? B. Provider expertise C. Fair resource allocation D. Avoiding harm A. Patient self-determination Autonomy respects a patient’s right to make informed choices. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) A dentist misdiagnosed cervical burnout as caries and placed composite restorations. What should be done? Inform the patient of the mistake Justify the treatment Ignore the issue Compensate with a free appointment Honesty and corrective action are required in misdiagnosis cases. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) What PPE is required for treating a TB patient? Face shield N95 respirator Gloves only Surgical mask N95 masks filter airborne TB bacteria. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) How deep should instruments be submerged in a sink for cleaning? Rinsed only Fully covered No submersion Half-submerged Full submersion ensures proper cleaning. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) A patient came to the Emergency Department complaining of an issue and mentioned she was in a hurry because her children were alone at home. What is the patient’s responsibility? To leave and return later To provide accurate information to the doctor To call her children frequently To hurry the staff to prioritize her The patient’s primary responsibility is to provide accurate information to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) How is the area around the dental unit classified? Clean Non-critical Dirty Critical This zone requires regular disinfection but is not sterile. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) How should corroded instruments and burs be handled? C. Soak in vinegar B. Discard D. Use abrasive cleaners A. Autoclave Autoclaving can sterilize corroded items if structurally intact. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) A trainee injures the lingual nerve during extraction. What violation occurs? B. Malpractice D. Negligence A. Justice C. Autonomy Malpractice involves harm due to inadequate skill or supervision. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) You post a patient’s photo on social media without consent. What is violated? B. Privacy A. Confidentiality C. Autonomy D. Beneficence Privacy rights protect patients from unauthorized image sharing. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) A 17-year-old arrives with an emergency but cannot sign consent. What should you do? D. Delay treatment C. Treat the emergency A. Obtain his signature first B. Have a family member sign Emergencies override consent requirements to prevent harm. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) A girl wants a Hollywood smile, but you disagree with the approach. What should you do? Bring another doctor to persuade her Discuss alternatives with her Refuse to treat her Ask her family to convince her Patient autonomy and informed consent are key in elective procedures. Your score is The average score is 46% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback
