Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients R11 Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients | Part 1 Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940414243444546474849505152535455565758596061626364656667686970717273747576777879808182838485868788899091929394959697 Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients R11 Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients | Part 1 DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction To mark a question and come back to it later, click the Bookmark icon. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). You can review and change your answers before clicking Next. Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. This is a fresh attempt — previous answers or bookmarks won’t be saved. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 1) A 1st-trimester pregnant patient has severe dental pain. What is the management? Extraction Pulp extirpation and endo referral Analgesics Antibiotics Palliative care and endo referral avoid fetal risks in the 1st trimester. 2 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 2) A child has greenish tooth bands. The mother took antibiotics during pregnancy. What caused this? Tetracycline Amoxicillin Erythromycin Cephalexin Tetracycline stains developing teeth when taken during pregnancy or childhood. 3 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 3) Which drug causes facial deformities in pregnancy? Aspirin Ibuprofen Acetaminophen Naproxen Aspirin is linked to Reye’s syndrome and fetal risks. 4 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 4) Which local anesthetic is Category C in pregnancy? Articaine Prilocaine Lidocaine Mepivacaine Articaine is Category C due to limited pregnancy safety data. 5 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 5) A 2nd-trimester pregnant patient has an oral infection. What is the treatment? Fluconazole Clindamycin Clarithromycin Tetracycline Clindamycin is safe and effective for oral infections in pregnancy. 6 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 6) Which anesthesia is contraindicated in pregnancy? Lidocaine with epinephrine Prilocaine Articaine Bupivacaine Articaine is Category C and less preferred in pregnancy. 7 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 7) Which antibiotic is safest for pregnant patients? Penicillin/Amoxicillin Tetracycline Ciprofloxacin Clarithromycin Penicillins are pregnancy Category B and widely used. 8 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 8) When is the safest time for elective dental treatment in pregnancy? 1st trimester 2nd trimester (4th-6th month) 3rd trimester Any time The 2nd trimester minimizes fetal risks and maternal discomfort. 9 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 9) What position prevents hypotension in pregnant women during dental treatment? Supine Upright Semi-supine Trendelenburg Semi-supine positioning avoids vena cava compression and hypotension. 10 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 10) How to confirm buccal anesthesia for lower 8? Check canine Check 1st molar Check 2nd molar Check 3rd molar The canine area is tested to confirm buccal nerve blockade. 11 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 11) A picture shows angina bullosa hemorrhagica. What is it? Blood-filled oral blister Herpes lesion Aphthous ulcer Traumatic ulcer Angina bullosa hemorrhagica presents as sudden blood blisters in the mouth. 12 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 12) An immunocompromised patient on two medications has a large tongue ulcer. What is the management? Biopsy Intralesional steroids Stop drug 1 Stop drug 2 Steroids can reduce inflammation in immunocompromised patients with ulcers. 13 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 13) A patient has symptoms of Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome. What is it characterized by? Periodontitis and palmoplantar keratosis Immunodeficiency Craniofacial deformities Cardiovascular defects Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome involves severe periodontitis and skin hyperkeratosis. 14 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 14) A bisphosphonate user undergoes extraction. What is the preoperative measure? Antibiotic prophylaxis Post-op antibiotics No antibiotics Antifungals Antibiotics are not prophylactic for bisphosphonate-related extractions. 15 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 15) When should antibiotics be given to a bisphosphonate user undergoing extraction? Pre- and post-op 3 days before 7 days before and 14 after Only if infection present Antibiotics are not routinely needed unless infection is evident. 16 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 16) A bisphosphonate user has a hopeless tooth. What should be done? RCT Extraction Monitor Crown placement RCT preserves the tooth and avoids osteonecrosis triggers. 17 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 17) A bisphosphonate user needs upper and lower extractions. How should it be done? All in one visit Upper first, lower later Lower first, upper later No extraction Staging extractions minimizes osteonecrosis risk. 18 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 18) A bisphosphonate user needs extraction. What is the management? Stop bisphosphonates for 3 months RCT and grind the tooth Extract without delay Monitor only RCT and grinding reduce osteonecrosis risk in bisphosphonate users. 19 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 19) A patient with a history of MI 3 years ago needs an extraction. What is the protocol? Consult cardiologist Proceed with extraction Delay extraction Use local anesthesia only Post-MI patients require cardiologist clearance due to cardiac stress risks. 20 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 20) Which gland is associated with Wharton’s duct? Submandibular gland Parotid gland Sublingual gland Minor salivary glands Wharton’s duct drains the submandibular gland. 21 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 21) A patient has parotid pain during meals but no calculi. What is the diagnosis? Sialadenitis Sialolithiasis Pleomorphic adenoma Mucocele Sialadenitis is inflammation of the salivary gland without stones. 22 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 22) A hepatitis patient needs multiple extractions. Which test is essential? ALT INR Bilirubin Albumin INR assesses clotting function, critical for surgical procedures in liver disease. 23 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 23) Which drug triggers gagging in heart failure patients? Digitalis Furosemide Metoprolol Aspirin Digitalis toxicity can stimulate the gag reflex due to its effects on the nervous system. 24 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 24) Which drug causes metallic taste? Metformin Amoxicillin Ibuprofen Paracetamol Metformin is notorious for causing dysgeusia (metallic taste). 25 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 25) A severe canine abscess causes eye closure. What is the complication? Pre-septal cellulitis Orbital cellulitis Cavernous sinus thrombosis Conjunctivitis Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a life-threatening complication of odontogenic infections. 26 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 26) Which nerve is anesthetized to extract lower primary molars (D and E)? Lingual nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Mental nerve Buccal nerve The inferior alveolar nerve provides primary anesthesia for mandibular molars. 27 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 27) A white lateral tongue lesion causes eating difficulty. What is the best management? Biopsy Antifungals Steroids Observation Biopsy is critical to diagnose suspicious white lesions. 28 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 28) Which technique is used for a patient with trismus? Vazirani-Akinosi block Gow-Gates block Inferior alveolar block Mental block The Vazirani-Akinosi block is effective when mouth opening is limited. 29 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 29) Where is the Vazirani-Akinosi injection administered? Anterior to condyle Mandibular fossa Coronoid notch Pterygomandibular space The Vazirani-Akinosi block targets the anterior condyle area for mandibular anesthesia. 30 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 30) How many plates fix a symphysis fracture? 1 2 3 4 Two plates are standard for symphysis fracture fixation. 31 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 31) What effect does PDL injection have on pulp circulation? Increases circulation Slightly slows circulation Stops circulation for 30 minutes No effect PDL injections can temporarily halt pulp circulation due to vasoconstriction. 32 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 32) A patient has a severed lip. How many suture layers are needed? 1 layer 2 layers 3 layers 4 layers Lip lacerations typically require three-layer closure for optimal healing. 33 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 33) A tongue with a minor injury is best managed by: Suture in one layer Suture in two layers Secondary intention healing Primary closure Minor tongue injuries heal optimally by secondary intention. 34 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 34) How to manage a shallow tongue injury? Suture Leave it to heal Apply topical gel Use laser therapy Superficial tongue injuries often heal well without intervention. 35 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 35) A white lesion on the tongue border requires which biopsy? Incisional biopsy Excisional biopsy Brush biopsy Fine-needle aspiration Incisional biopsy is standard for diagnosing suspicious oral lesions. 36 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 36) Herpes zoster can cause: Postherpetic neuralgia Encephalitis Hepatitis Myocarditis Postherpetic neuralgia is chronic pain persisting after shingles resolves. 37 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 37) What is the most common complication of herpes zoster? Neuralgia Vision loss Hearing loss Secondary infection Postherpetic neuralgia is a frequent and debilitating complication of shingles. 38 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 38) What lab test is used for erythema multiforme? Skin biopsy CBC PCR for HSV All of the above Diagnosis is clinical, but labs like biopsy and HSV PCR may support it. 39 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 39) A patient with erythema multiforme (5-6 episodes/year) wants preventive medication. What is recommended? Antivirals (Valacyclovir) Systemic steroids Antifungals Topical steroids Antivirals can prevent herpes-triggered erythema multiforme. 40 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 40) A patient has recurrent ulcers that crust and reappear after sun exposure. What is the diagnosis? Herpetic stomatitis Recurrent herpes labialis Erythema multiforme Lichen planus Recurrent herpes labialis is often triggered by UV light. 41 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 41) A female develops blisters that crust after sun exposure. What is the diagnosis? Recurrent herpes simplex Allergic reaction Sunburn Pemphigus Sunlight can trigger recurrent herpes labialis outbreaks. 42 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 42) A picture shows recurrent herpes labialis. What is the diagnosis? Recurrent herpes simplex Aphthous ulcer Erythema multiforme Candidiasis Recurrent herpes labialis presents as clustered blisters on the lips. 43 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 43) What is the management of primary herpetic infection? Antivirals Antibiotics Steroids Analgesics Antivirals like acyclovir are first-line for primary herpes infections. 44 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 44) A diabetic patient experiences left chest pain radiating to the jaw during treatment. What should be given (no GTN available)? Metoprolol Aspirin Nitroglycerin Morphine Metoprolol can manage acute cardiac symptoms when GTN is unavailable. 45 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 45) A child has limited mouth opening. What is the management? Exercises TMJ surgery Medications Observation Jaw exercises are first-line therapy for limited mouth opening in children. 46 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 46) A diabetic and hypothyroid patient is at risk for: Myxedema Thyroid storm Diabetic ketoacidosis Hyperglycemia Hypothyroid diabetics are prone to myxedema due to metabolic instability. 47 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 47) A woman with thyroid issues has BP 90/60 and HR 50 bpm. What is concerning? Myxedema Hyperthyroidism Hypotension Anemia Bradycardia and hypotension are red flags for myxedema in hypothyroid patients. 48 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 48) What is the first sign of myxedema coma? Hypothermia Tachycardia Hypertension Hyperventilation Hypothermia is a hallmark early sign of myxedema coma. 49 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 49) A diabetic and hypothyroid patient presents with breathing difficulty and sweating during a follow-up. RBS is normal, HbA1c slightly elevated. What is the cause? Hypoglycemia Myxedema coma Hyperglycemia Anxiety Myxedema coma can occur in hypothyroid patients, presenting with severe symptoms despite normal RBS. 50 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 50) What is expected after blunt trauma to oral tissues? Hematoma Laceration Abrasion Fracture Blunt trauma often causes bruising or hematoma due to blood vessel damage. 51 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 51) Which lymph node drains the anterior tongue? Omohyoid Sublingual Submandibular Deep cervical The omohyoid node is part of the lymphatic drainage for the anterior tongue. 52 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 52) A 2-year-old presents with oral rash and spots on hands and feet. What is the diagnosis? Chickenpox Hand-foot-mouth disease Measles Scarlet fever Hand-foot-mouth disease is characterized by oral and extremity lesions in children. 53 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 53) Which supplement is recommended for Crohn’s disease patients? Zinc Calcium Potassium Vitamin D Calcium supplements help counteract malabsorption in Crohn’s disease. 54 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 54) Which vitamin deficiency is common in Crohn’s disease? Calcium Zinc Potassium Iron Calcium malabsorption is frequent in Crohn’s due to intestinal inflammation. 55 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 55) A Crohn’s disease patient needs a tooth extraction. What is the management? Antibiotics post-extraction Steroids pre-extraction Both A and B No special measures Crohn’s patients may need steroids and antibiotics to manage inflammation and infection risks. 56 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 56) A large radiolucent lesion at the mandibular angle contains a third molar. What is the management? Enucleation Marsupialization Observation Biopsy Enucleation is often performed for cystic lesions involving impacted teeth. 57 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 57) What is the name of the technique used to cover a needle safely? One-handed scooping Two-handed scooping Needle clipper None of the above One-handed scooping is the recommended method for needle recapping. 58 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 58) What is the safest way to close a needle? One-hand scoop technique Two-hand technique Use a needle destroyer No recapping The one-hand scoop technique reduces accidental needle sticks. 59 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 59) How to prevent needle-stick injuries? Use a mouth mirror Scoop technique Wear double gloves No recapping The scoop technique minimizes needle-stick risks during recapping. 60 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 60) A child with a liver transplant needs fluoride. How often should it be administered? Every 3 months Every 6 months Every 12 months No fluoride Liver transplant patients are at moderate caries risk; fluoride every 3 months is advised. 61 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 61) A 7-year-old brushes twice daily. Which fluoride toothpaste is recommended? 250 ppm 350 ppm 550 ppm 1100 ppm Children over 6 should use toothpaste with 1000-1500 ppm fluoride for optimal protection. 62 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 62) What is the percentage of acidulated phosphate fluoride for clinical use? 0.50% 1.23% 2% 5% 1.23% APF is used in clinics, while 0.5% is for home use. 63 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 63) What is the toxic dose of fluoride in mg/kg? 10 15 2 5 5 mg/kg of fluoride is considered the toxic dose, requiring medical intervention. 64 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 64) What is the concentration of sodium fluoride in professionally applied fluoride varnish? 1% 2% 5% 10% Professional fluoride varnish typically contains 5% sodium fluoride. 65 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 65) What fluoride regimen is recommended for a 12-year-old child? 1100 ppm dentifrice, 5% NaF 500 ppm dentifrice, 5% NaF 1100 ppm dentifrice, 0.05% NaF 500 ppm dentifrice, 0.05% NaF 1100 ppm fluoride toothpaste and 0.05% NaF rinse are effective for caries prevention. 66 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 66) A 3-year-old ingested a full tube of toothpaste. What is the first action? Give milk Induce vomiting Take to the hospital Observe at home Milk neutralizes fluoride and delays its absorption. 67 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 67) Which treatment is contraindicated in children with renal failure? Fluoride varnish All topical fluoride Fluoride gel Fluoride toothpaste Fluoride is excreted renally; impaired kidney function increases toxicity risk. 68 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 68) A child swallowed an entire adult toothpaste tube. What should be done first? Drink milk Induce vomiting Go to the hospital Monitor at home Milk binds fluoride, reducing its absorption and toxicity. 69 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 69) A hyperthyroid patient develops tachycardia, hypertension, and fever after anesthesia. What is the cause? Hypertension Allergic reaction Anxiety Thyrotoxicosis Thyrotoxicosis mimics adrenergic overstimulation and requires urgent treatment. 70 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 70) A hyperthyroid patient given epinephrine may experience: Thyrotoxic reaction Allergic reaction Hypotension Seizures Epinephrine can trigger thyrotoxicosis in hyperthyroid patients. 71 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 71) Absence of neutrophils and bacterial invasion is seen in: Neutropenia Thalassemia Thrombocytopenia Leukemia Neutropenia results in low neutrophil counts, increasing infection risk. 72 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 72) In the tuberculin test, what indicates a positive result for TB? ≥15 mm induration ≥5 mm induration ≥10 mm induration No induration A reaction of ≥15 mm suggests TB infection in healthy individuals. 73 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 73) Which staining method is used for TB? Ziehl-Neelsen Gram stain Wright stain Hematoxylin-eosin Ziehl-Neelsen staining is specific for acid-fast bacteria like TB. 74 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 74) The acid-fast test is used to detect which disease? Tuberculosis Syphilis HIV Hepatitis The acid-fast test identifies Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 75 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 75) Why extract hopeless asymptomatic teeth? Risk of infection Pain prevention Cosmetic reasons Orthodontic reasons Asymptomatic teeth may still pose an infection risk if left untreated. 76 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 76) How should a controlled diabetic patient be managed in the dental clinic? Early morning appointment Afternoon appointment Evening appointment No specific timing Early morning appointments minimize stress and stabilize blood sugar levels. 77 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 77) What are the types of TMJ disorders? With disc displacement Without disc displacement Both A and B None of the above TMJ disorders can involve disc displacement or occur without it. 78 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 78) In a full quadrant extraction for a periodontal case, what is the recommended sequence? Posterior to anterior Most mobile tooth first Anterior to posterior Random order Starting posteriorly provides better visibility and access during extractions. 79 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 79) A patient with trismus has a fibrous rim palpable on the cheek. What is the management? Steroid injection in the lesion Surgical excision Physical therapy Antibiotics Steroid injections can reduce inflammation and fibrosis in trismus cases. 80 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 80) How should a patient on warfarin be managed before extraction? Stop warfarin 3 days prior Continue warfarin, monitor INR Use local hemostatic agents No intervention needed For most extractions, warfarin can be continued with INR monitoring to avoid thromboembolic risks. 81 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 81) A patient has a dome-shaped bullous lesion on the lower lip. What is the diagnosis? Mucocele Ranula Bullous pemphigoid Herpes simplex Mucoceles often appear as dome-shaped, fluid-filled lesions. 82 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 82) Which test is essential for a liver disease patient before tooth extraction? ALT INR Bilirubin Platelet count INR assesses clotting function, crucial for patients with liver disease undergoing surgery. 83 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 83) A patient complains of generalized enlargement of the upper lip only. What is the diagnosis? Mucocele Ranula Cheilitis granulomatosa Angioedema Cheilitis granulomatosa (CG) can cause persistent lip swelling. 84 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 84) A pediatric patient has a clear swelling on the lower lip. What is the diagnosis? Mucocele Hematoma Ranula Abscess Mucoceles are common fluid-filled swellings caused by blocked salivary glands. 85 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 85) A patient presents with oral ulcers, eye lesions, and genital lesions. Which disease is indicated? Behçet's syndrome Lichen planus Pemphigus vulgaris Erythema multiforme Behçet’s syndrome is characterized by recurrent oral, genital, and ocular lesions. 86 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 86) A radiolucency is observed at the mid-root distal to tooth #43. What is the management? Excision Monitoring Root canal treatment Antibiotics Excision is often required for radiolucent lesions to prevent further complications. 87 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 87) What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole? Inhibits protein synthesis Disrupts cell wall synthesis Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis Blocks folate metabolism Metronidazole is bactericidal and disrupts DNA synthesis in microbial cells. 88 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 88) A patient loses sensation in the tongue after third molar extraction. Which nerve was injured? Lingual nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Mental nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve The lingual nerve is commonly injured during third molar extractions, leading to tongue numbness. 89 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 89) A patient punched in the mandible develops a crossbite. Which part of the mandible is most likely fractured? Condyle Ramus Body Symphysis Condylar fractures often result in crossbite due to displacement of the mandible. 90 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 90) What is the correct chair position for extracting a lower primary molar? Mandibular parallel to floor Mandibular tilted upward Mandibular tilted downward Patient seated upright Positioning the mandible parallel to the floor provides optimal access for extraction. 91 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 91) Hypoplasia of a permanent tooth due to a history of primary tooth caries is known as: Turner's hypoplasia Amelogenesis imperfecta Dentinogenesis imperfecta Enamel hypoplasia Turner’s hypoplasia results from infection or trauma to the primary tooth affecting the permanent tooth. 92 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 92) An immunocompromised patient has a shiny tongue. Which test should be performed to determine the cause? Swab Blood tests Biopsy Saliva test Blood tests help identify systemic causes of oral manifestations in immunocompromised patients. 93 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 93) A patient presents with a rigid swelling on the left side of the mandible. Which investigation is most appropriate besides OPG? CT CBCT Biopsy Fine needle aspiration CBCT provides detailed 3D images of the mandible, useful for diagnosing swellings. 94 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 94) A patient bites their lateral lip, resulting in a mass-like tissue. What is this called? Traumatic fibroma Hematoma Mucocele Ranula Traumatic fibroma is a benign lesion caused by chronic irritation. 95 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 95) After administering 2.5mg sedation to a pediatric patient, they exhibit dizziness, slurred speech, and fainting. What occurred? Moderate sedation Minimal sedation Overdose Allergic reaction These symptoms indicate an overdose of sedation. 96 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 96) A 5-year-old child given 2.5mg Diazepam experiences respiratory depression and fainting. What is the cause? Overdose Allergy Side effect Incorrect dosage Diazepam can cause respiratory depression in high doses, especially in children. 97 / 97 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 97) What is the classification of hypertension according to the 1971 guidelines? Normal Mild Moderate Severe The 1971 classification categorizes hypertension into stages based on blood pressure readings. Your score is The average score is 54% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. 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