Removable Prosthodontics R11 Removable Prosthodontics SDLE MCQ Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940414243444546474849505152535455565758596061626364656667686970717273747576777879808182838485868788899091 Removable Prosthodontics R11 Removable Prosthodontics SDLE MCQ DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction To mark a question and come back to it later, click the Bookmark icon. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). You can review and change your answers before clicking Next. Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. This is a fresh attempt — previous answers or bookmarks won’t be saved. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) A patient needs to restore #23. What occlusion type is recommended if canine guidance is not specified? Bilateral occlusion Unilateral occlusion Organic occlusion Canine guidance Unilateral occlusion is often used for single-tooth restorations. 2 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) A patient has an 8 mm distance in the lower arch. Which major connector is suitable? Labial bar Sublingual bar Linguoplate Lingual bar Lingual bars are used for moderate space (8 mm). 3 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) What is the cross-sectional shape of a wrought wire clasp? Flat Round Oval Square Wrought wire clasps are round for flexibility. 4 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) A patient has soreness and erythema beneath the CD. What is the etiology? Denture stomatitis Pulpitis Increased VDO Allergic reaction Denture stomatitis is caused by fungal infection or irritation. 5 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) Why should dentures be cleaned after each meal? Prevent cross-infection Maintain aesthetics Allow denture to "breathe" Improve retention Cleaning prevents bacterial buildup and infections. 6 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) A patient with an RPD has gingival redness. What is the likely cause? High occlusion Poor hygiene Lack of rests Allergic reaction Missing rests can cause excessive pressure on the gingiva. 7 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) A patient complains their denture no longer fits. Which disease could be the cause? Paget's disease Parkinson's disease Diabetes Osteoporosis Paget’s disease can cause bone changes affecting denture fit. 8 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) A patient with complete dentures pronounces “S” as “Th.” What is the most likely cause? Upper anterior teeth too lingual Thick wax in rugae area Incorrect vertical dimension Upper anterior teeth too labial Lingually positioned teeth or thick wax can cause speech issues. 9 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) An old man presents with flabby tissue. Which impression technique is recommended? Selective pressure Mucostatic Dynamic impression Functional impression Mucostatic minimizes pressure on flabby tissue. 10 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) What is the first thing to check during complete denture delivery? Aesthetics Occlusion Fitting Speech Proper fitting ensures comfort and function. 11 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) A patient has an edentulous maxilla and bilateral free saddle in the lower arch. Which component provides rigidity? Mesial minor connector with rest Minor connector Mesial rest with distal plate Major connector Mesial rests with distal plates stabilize bilateral saddles. 12 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) What occlusion type is recommended for complete dentures? Bilateral balanced occlusion Canine guidance Unilateral occlusion Organic occlusion Bilateral balanced occlusion ensures stability during function. 13 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) A patient extracted #21, 22, and 23. What is the Kennedy classification? Class I Class II Class IV Class III Missing anterior teeth bilaterally is Class III. 14 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) A well-controlled diabetic patient has excessive tooth mobility. What is the best treatment? Implant Orthodontics RPD Fixed prosthesis RPDs are suitable for patients with mobility issues. 15 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) A patient has minimal interarch space (3 mm). What is the best treatment option? Removable denture Orthodontic closure Implant Fixed prosthesis Removable dentures are suitable for limited space. 16 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 16) A patient complains of cheek biting after RPD insertion. What is the cause? Incorrect path of insertion Insufficient horizontal overlap Poor retention High teeth setting Insufficient overlap allows cheek tissue to be trapped. 17 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 17) What is the recommended space for RPD connectors? 3-5 mm 5-7 mm 9-11 mm 7-9 mm Connectors require 3-5 mm of space for strength and comfort. 18 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 18) A 63-year-old patient is uncomfortable with his denture. What adjustment is recommended? Balanced occlusion Monoplane occlusion Linear occlusion Lingualized occlusion Lingualized occlusion improves comfort for patients with ridge resorption. 19 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 19) A patient has anterior and tuberosity undercuts. How should this be managed for complete dentures? Both Relieve posterior undercut Remove anterior undercut Neither Both adjustments are needed for proper denture fit. 20 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 20) What is the term for equal force from the tongue and cheeks on a denture? Support zone Retention zone Stability zone Neutral zone The neutral zone balances forces for stability. 21 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 21) What is the easiest way to manage a broken occlusal rest? Replace the rest Solder the rest Recast the framework Use temporary adhesive Replacing the rest is the most straightforward solution. 22 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 22) An abutment has no buccal undercut and minimal cervical undercut. Which clasp is suitable? RPA clasp T-bar clasp RPI clasp Ring clasp RPI clasps are versatile for minimal undercuts. 23 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 23) Tooth #11 is missing. What is the Kennedy classification? Class IV Class III Class II Class I Missing a single anterior tooth is Class III. 24 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 24) A patient is missing upper right 4-7 and upper left 4-6. What is the Kennedy classification? Class IV mod I Class III mod II Class I mod II Class II mod II Bilateral edentulous areas with remaining teeth are Class II mod II. 25 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 25) A patient has bilaterally free saddle in the lower arch and an edentulous maxilla. What occlusion is recommended? Organic occlusion Unilateral occlusion Canine guidance Bilateral balanced occlusion Bilateral balanced occlusion is ideal for edentulous cases. 26 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 26) An impression is thick on one side and thin on the other. What is the reason? Tray distortion Uneven material mix Patient movement Incorrect tray position Improper tray positioning causes uneven material distribution. 27 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 27) What is the purpose of the fovea and vibrating line in denture fabrication? Aesthetics Stability Posterior palatal seal Retention The fovea and vibrating line help create the posterior palatal seal. 28 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 28) What happens if a rest seat is prepared before the guide plane? Poor fit No effect Framework distortion Increased retention The sequence is critical for proper fit and function. 29 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 29) In which scenario is selective pressure impression technique indicated? Upper class II Lower class I Partial denture Complete denture Selective pressure is ideal for lower class I cases. 30 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 30) A Class I Kennedy case has spaces in the mandible. Which major connector is used? Sublingual bar Lingual bar Labial bar Interrupted lingual plate Interrupted lingual plates are used for flexibility. 31 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 31) An upper CD fractures after 9 years of use. What is the likely cause? Thin palate Material defect Posterior teeth too buccal Poor design Buccal tooth placement creates leverage leading to fracture. 32 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 32) A patient has a lingual sulcus depth of 9 mm. Which major connector is recommended? Linguoplate Labial bar Sublingual bar Lingual bar Lingual bars are ideal for depths ≥7 mm. 33 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 33) How to enhance retention in a clasp-free RPD? Maximize soft tissue coverage Adjust occlusion Use adhesives Improve tooth contact Maximum coverage improves suction and stability. 34 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 34) An RPD rest fractures. What is the most likely cause? Improper design High occlusion Insufficient marginal ridge prep Poor alloy quality Inadequate preparation weakens the rest seat. 35 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 35) A tooth with MOD amalgam is used as an abutment. What is the best approach? Place a surveyed crown Use a temporary restoration Avoid using the tooth Prepare rest on amalgam Surveyed crowns provide long-term stability. 36 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 36) A patient has spaces between anterior teeth. Which major connector is best? Sublingual bar Linguoplate Lingual bar Labial bar Linguoplates stabilize spaced anterior teeth. 37 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 37) In an RPD class I case with stable contact in maximum intercuspation but discrepancy in centric relation, which position should be used? Neither Both Maximum intercuspation Centric relation Centric relation ensures proper jaw alignment for the RPD. 38 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 38) What occlusion type is used for Kennedy class III cases? Bilateral balanced occlusion Unilateral balanced occlusion Canine guidance Organic occlusion Canine guidance is ideal for Kennedy class III cases. 39 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 39) What occlusion type is used for full mouth rehabilitation? Organic occlusion Canine guidance Bilateral balanced occlusion Unilateral occlusion Canine guidance provides stability during lateral movements. 40 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 40) How to manage a fractured retentive arm? Recast the clasp Add wrought wire Replace the denture Use adhesive Adding wrought wire restores retention. 41 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 41) For a patient with a firm edentulous ridge and severe atrophic tongue, which impression technique is most suitable? Normal impression Mucostatic Mixed impression tech. Functional impression Normal impression is suitable for firm ridges without severe atrophy. 42 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 42) An elderly osteoporotic patient with multiple missing teeth needs treatment. What is the best option? No treatment Implants Removable denture Fixed prosthesis Removable dentures are safer for osteoporotic patients. 43 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 43) A pier abutment has an MOD amalgam. What should be done? Prepare rest on amalgam Avoid using as abutment Use a rigid connector Place a surveyed crown Surveyed crowns protect pier abutments from stress. 44 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 44) A patient lost all incisors and will extract #25. How many rests and connectors are needed? 3 rests and 2 connectors 4 rests and 3 connectors 5 rests and 4 connectors 6 rests and 5 connectors The design requires 6 rests and 5 connectors for stability. 45 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 45) In a Class II RPD, which element provides bracing for terminal abutments? Occlusal rest Minor connector Lingual reciprocals Guide plane Lingual reciprocals resist lateral forces. 46 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 46) An RPD abutment is tender to percussion. What is the cause? Exposed dentine under rest Hyperocclusion Periodontal disease Cracked tooth High occlusion can cause tenderness. 47 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 47) What is the function of the foil on a night guard over molars and premolars? Improve retention Create CBCT casts Measure interarch space Record centric occlusion The foil helps assess interarch space for adjustments. 48 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 48) What type of indirect clasp is used in Kennedy class III cases? Embrasure clasp Aker clasp I-bar clasp Ring clasp Embrasure clasps are commonly used in Kennedy class III cases. 49 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 49) An upper arch has no distal teeth, only anterior teeth and second premolars. What is the Kennedy classification? Class II mod 1 Class I mod 2 Class III mod 1 Class IV This is a Class I modification 2 case. 50 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 50) A 70-year-old patient needs a crown for tooth #25 with stable maximum intercuspation but far from centric occlusion. On which position should the crown be fabricated? Maximum intercuspation Halfway between MI and CO Centric occlusion Neither The crown should align with the patient’s habitual occlusion (MI). 51 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 51) What causes porosity in a denture base? Insufficient pressure All of the above Contaminated monomer Rapid polymerization Multiple factors can lead to porosity. 52 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 52) A patient needs complete dentures with the lower ridge buccal to the upper ridge. How should the teeth be set? Class I Bilateral crossbite Class II Unilateral crossbite Bilateral crossbite compensates for the ridge discrepancy. 53 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 53) What clasp is used for a mesiolingual undercut? RPI clasp T-bar clasp Aker clasp Ring clasp Ring clasps engage mesiolingual undercuts effectively. 54 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 54) What is surveying used for in RPD fabrication? Assess soft tissue Identify undercuts and path Check tooth alignment Evaluate bone levels Surveying identifies undercuts and guides placement. 55 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 55) A patient needs to replace missing teeth #4 and #5. What type of clasp is recommended? Aker clasp I-bar clasp Circlet clasp Ring clasp Aker clasps are commonly used for premolars. 56 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 56) Which clasp is recommended for a mid-buccal undercut? Ring clasp Aker clasp T-bar clasp RPI clasp RPI clasps minimize gingival irritation. 57 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 57) A mesially tilted tooth #7 requires a clasp. Which type is suitable? Aker clasp T-bar clasp RPI clasp Ring clasp Ring clasps are ideal for tilted molars. 58 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 58) A patient with complete dentures has enlarged tissue at the denture border. What is the cause? Long buccal flange Fungal infection Allergic reaction Candida infection Overextended flanges can cause tissue irritation. 59 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 59) Missing incisors in the upper arch and #25 will be extracted. What is the Kennedy classification? Class IV Class III mod I Class II mod I Class I mod I This is a Class III modification I case. 60 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 60) An RPD becomes ill-fitting. What should be done? Replacement Rebasing Relining Adjustment Relining improves fit without replacing the framework. 61 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 61) What is the recommended thickness for an occlusal rest in an RPD? 0.5 mm 2.0 mm 1.5 mm 1.0 mm Occlusal rests should be 1.5 mm thick for strength. 62 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 62) What is the function of a Fox plane? Align wax rims Ensure facial thirds alignment Record lateral movements Record centric relation The Fox plane ensures proper alignment of wax rims. 63 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 63) A patient lost 4 anterior teeth in an accident. What is the Kennedy classification? Class III Class IV Class I Class II Missing anterior teeth without distal extension is Class IV. 64 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 64) A 73-year-old woman has remaining teeth #14, 13, 24, 37, 35, 44, and 46. What is the Kennedy-Applegate classification for the maxilla? Maxilla: Class I modification I Mandible: Class III modification I Maxilla: Class I modification II Mandible: Class II modification II The maxilla is Class I modification I due to bilateral edentulous areas. 65 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 65) A patient is missing teeth #4-6 on both sides. What direct retainer is recommended? Embrasure clasp RPC clasp I-bar clasp Circle clasp Circle clasps provide retention for bilateral missing teeth. 66 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 66) A cardiac patient has difficulty swallowing with the denture. What is the likely cause? Medication side effects Poor fit Allergic reaction Thick denture base A thick denture base can interfere with tongue space. 67 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 67) What happens if there is no contact between the minor connector and the rest? Framework fracture Poor retention Rest fracture Tooth mobility Lack of contact can lead to rest fracture due to stress concentration. 68 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 68) A patient’s denture falls when smiling. What is the likely cause? Thick posterior palatal seal Thick buccal notches Incorrect occlusion Poor retention Thick buccal notches can interfere with muscle movement. 69 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 69) Where should complete dentures be stored at night? Dry container Denture cleanser Lukewarm water Cold water Lukewarm water prevents warping and maintains hygiene. 70 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 70) What is the primary function of a surveyor in RPD design? Measure undercuts Evaluate aesthetics Check occlusion Determine path of insertion Surveyors help determine the optimal path of insertion. 71 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 71) An edentulous patient with complete dentures is asked to blow air with the nose closed. What is being checked? Lateral extension of PPS Posterior vibrating line of PPS Anterior vibrating line of PPS Midline of the palate This test checks the anterior vibrating line for proper seal. 72 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 72) A patient presents 2 days after #21 extraction with a non-healing socket and needs a partial acrylic denture. What type is considered? Immediate Permanent Temporary Transitional Immediate dentures are placed right after extraction. 73 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 73) A patient lost both centrals and upper left 5 needs extraction, with all third molars impacted. What is the Kennedy classification? Class IV Class III mod 1 Class I mod 1 Class II mod 1 This is a Class III modification 1 case. 74 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 74) During CD delivery, a wax knife can be inserted from one side to the other in rest position. What should be done? Rebase the maxilla Adjust occlusion Reline the denture Redo the mandible This indicates improper mandibular denture fit. 75 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 75) A Kennedy class III case has a mid-buccal undercut. Which clasp is suitable? Embrasure clasp Circumferential clasp I-bar clasp Ring clasp I-bar clasps are ideal for mid-buccal undercuts. 76 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 76) Which clasp is recommended for Kennedy class I cases? Circle clasp RPC clasp Ring clasp RPI clasp RPI clasps are commonly used in Kennedy class I. 77 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 77) How long should denture wax be immersed in warm water? 30 seconds 20 seconds 40 seconds 10 seconds 30 seconds ensures proper softening without distortion. 78 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 78) Which denture cleanser is known to harm soft tissues? Diluted NaOCl Chlorhexidine Baking soda Hydrogen peroxide Diluted NaOCl can irritate soft tissues if not properly diluted. 79 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 79) What is the term for mandibular movement to the left? Centric Non-working side Working side Non-centric Non-working side refers to the opposite side of movement. 80 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 80) How can a dentist detect reduced vertical dimension in a patient? Uneven occlusion Decreased freeway space Poor retention Increased freeway space Excessive freeway space indicates reduced VDO. 81 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 81) A 60-year-old man with new dentures complains of auricular pain and reduced masticatory efficiency. What is the likely error? Unbalanced occlusion Increased VDO CR-CO discrepancy Reduced VDO Reduced vertical dimension causes muscle strain and pain. 82 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 82) At the first follow-up, a red spot is noticed on the left ridge of a new complete denture. What is the cause? High force on left teeth Unpolymerized resin Allergy Poor hygiene Pressure spots indicate uneven force distribution. 83 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 83) A mandibular RPD class II is missing #45-48 and #35-36. What is the ideal indirect retainer? Proximal plates Lingual plate Occlusal rests Canine rests Canine rests provide effective indirect retention. 84 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 84) Which impression material is contraindicated for a diabetic patient with sulfite allergy? Polysulfide Alginate Silicone Polyether Polysulfide contains sulfites, which can trigger allergies. 85 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 85) What is Bennett movement? Lateral movement Protrusive movement Lateral working Lateral shifting Bennett movement is the lateral shift of the mandible. 86 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 86) What component is placed on top of an implant in an overdenture? Locator Ball attachment Healing cap Abutment The abutment connects the implant to the overdenture. 87 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 87) A smoker presents with an ill-fitting denture and erythematous palate. What is the diagnosis? Allergic reaction Denture stomatitis Traumatic ulcer Candidiasis Denture stomatitis is common in smokers and ill-fitting dentures. 88 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 88) A patient with good oral hygiene and ridge width complains of poor mastication with CDs. What is the best solution? Remake the CD Implant-supported CD Reline the CD Adjust occlusion Implant-supported CDs improve function and stability. 89 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 89) A tooth has shallow buccal contours. Which clasp is suitable? RPI clasp RPA clasp T-bar clasp Ring clasp RPA clasps work well with shallow contours. 90 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 90) What clasp is used for a mid-buccal undercut on upper tooth #5? T-bar clasp RPI clasp Ring clasp Aker clasp RPI clasps engage mid-buccal undercuts without gingival interference. 91 / 91 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 91) How many rests and retainers are needed for a class IV RPD? 4 rests, 2 direct, 2 indirect 3 rests, 2 direct, 1 indirect 2 rests, 1 direct, 1 indirect 1 rest, 1 direct Class IV RPDs typically require 4 rests (2 direct and 2 indirect). Your score is The average score is 40% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Share Facebook X LinkedIn Pinterest Reddit Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Share via Email Print
