Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients R11 Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients | Part 2 Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940414243444546474849505152535455565758596061626364656667686970717273747576777879808182838485868788899091929394 Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients R11 Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients | Part 2 DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction To mark a question and come back to it later, click the Bookmark icon. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). You can review and change your answers before clicking Next. Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. This is a fresh attempt — previous answers or bookmarks won’t be saved. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 1) A mandibular fracture in the premolar area is classified as: Body fracture Angle fracture Condylar fracture Ramus fracture Fractures between canines and angle are body fractures. 2 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 2) A picture shows dens invaginatus. What is this? Dens invaginatus Dens evaginatus Taurodontism Supernumerary tooth Dens invaginatus shows tooth-within-tooth appearance. 3 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 3) Dens evaginatus most commonly affects which tooth? Lower second premolar Upper lateral incisor Lower central incisor Upper first molar Dens evaginatus typically occurs on mandibular premolars. 4 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 4) Needle on incisive papilla targets which nerve? Nasopalatine nerve Greater palatine nerve Anterior superior alveolar Infraorbital nerve Incisive papilla anesthesia blocks the nasopalatine nerve. 5 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 5) Dens invaginatus most commonly affects which maxillary teeth? Central incisors Lateral incisors Canines Premolars Lateral incisors are most frequently affected. 6 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 6) A third molar is very close to the nerve. What is the best action? Refer to oral surgeon Warn patient and extract yourself Monitor Prescribe painkillers High-risk cases should be referred to specialists. 7 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 7) A decayed #38 is near the inferior nerve on OPG. What should you do? Refer to surgeon Let patient choose Extract anyway Prescribe antibiotics High-risk extractions near nerves require specialist care. 8 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 8) Before biopsy of a large mandibular radiolucency, what should be done first? Antibiotics MRI Aspiration Blood tests Aspiration helps differentiate cystic from solid lesions. 9 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 9) Intraoral tuberosity examination assesses which muscle? Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid Masseter Mylohyoid Lateral pterygoid can be palpated in the tuberosity area. 10 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 10) Which muscle opens the mandible? Medial pterygoid Buccinator Digastric Mylohyoid Digastric (with lateral pterygoid) depresses the mandible. 11 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 11) Which muscles actively close the jaw? Masseter and lateral pterygoid Masseter and medial pterygoid Temporalis and digastric Buccinator and mylohyoid Masseter and medial pterygoid are primary jaw closers. 12 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 12) Resistance during jaw protrusion is due to which structure? Lateral pterygoid Medial pterygoid Stylomandibular ligament Masseter Lateral pterygoid controls protrusive movements. 13 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 13) Chin pain during protrusion suggests involvement of which muscle? Lateral pterygoid Stylomandibular ligament Medial pterygoid Temporalis Lateral pterygoid is the primary protruder of the mandible. 14 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 14) HPV can affect which areas? Skin Oral mucosa Pharynx All of the above HPV infects squamous epithelium at multiple sites. 15 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 15) Which cancer is most associated with HPV? Oropharyngeal cancer Oral squamous cell carcinoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Laryngeal cancer HPV (especially type 16) causes most oropharyngeal cancers. 16 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 16) Epithelial remnants along the mid-palatal raphe are called: Epstein's pearls Bohn's nodules Dental lamina cysts Gingival cysts Epstein’s pearls are found along the palatal raphe. 17 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 17) What are remnants of epithelial tissue trapped during palatal fusion (8th-10th week)? Epstein's pearls Bohn's nodules Dental lamina cysts Natal teeth Epstein’s pearls form during palatal fusion. 18 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 18) Which condition affects salivary glands in sarcoidosis? Xerostomia Sialadenitis Ranula Mucocele Sarcoidosis can cause salivary gland inflammation and dry mouth. 19 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 19) Granulomatous inflammation is typically associated with: Sarcoidosis Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoarthritis Gout Sarcoidosis is characterized by non-caseating granulomas. 20 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 20) Which disease causes multi-system granulomas? Sarcoidosis Tuberculosis Crohn's disease Wegener's granulomatosis Sarcoidosis is a systemic granulomatous disease. 21 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 21) Which medication helps heavy smokers quit? Varenicline Bupropion Nicotine gum Clonidine Varenicline is a first-line smoking cessation aid. 22 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 22) What is the best management for a patient smoking 20 cigarettes/day? Counseling Nicotine patches Medication Wait for complications Counseling is first-line for smoking cessation. 23 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 23) Which syndrome is associated with rheumatoid arthritis? Sjögren's syndrome Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Down syndrome Sjögren’s commonly accompanies rheumatoid arthritis. 24 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 24) Where should a vertical incision be placed for #11 surgery? Mesial to #13 Distal to #11 Midline Palatal side Mesial to #13 provides optimal access. 25 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 25) A patient has fever with gray vesicles on the lower lip. What is the management? Antiviral therapy Antibiotic therapy Antifungal therapy Corticosteroids Herpetic lesions require antiviral treatment. 26 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 26) The tip of the tongue drains to which lymph nodes? Submental nodes Submandibular nodes Deep cervical nodes Jugulodigastric nodes The tongue tip drains primarily to submental nodes. 27 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 27) Which drugs should be avoided in iodine-sensitive patients? IV contrast media Penicillins Cephalosporins NSAIDs Iodine allergy contraindicates iodine-containing contrast. 28 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 28) When can you treat an active TB patient on medication? After 2 weeks of medication After 4 weeks of medication Take precautions but no need to wait Wait for negative test Standard precautions are sufficient once treatment begins. 29 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 29) Autoantibodies are characteristic of which disease? (Not Sjögren’s) Lichen planus Oral cancer SLE Erythema multiforme SLE is characterized by various autoantibodies. 30 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 30) A high-caries cardiac pediatric patient needs which preventive regimen? Fluoridated toothpaste/rinse/varnish every 6 months Non-fluoridated toothpaste/varnish yearly Fluoride varnish only No special precautions Frequent fluoride use prevents caries without cardiac risks. 31 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 31) What test monitors heparin therapy? INR PTT Bleeding time Thrombin time PTT measures heparin’s anticoagulant effect. 32 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 32) What is the most feared complication after extraction in a jaundiced patient? Bleeding Infection Nerve damage Dry socket Liver disease impairs clotting, increasing bleeding risk. 33 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 33) A cirrhotic patient needs simple extraction. What test should be ordered? INR test Liver function tests Complete blood count Electrolytes INR evaluates bleeding risk in liver disease. 34 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 34) A liver disease patient needs extraction. What test is required? PTT Bleeding time INR Platelet count INR assesses clotting function in liver disease. 35 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 35) A congenital heart disease patient with INR 3.5 needs minor surgery. What is the management? Proceed with surgery Lower INR to <3.5 first Cancel surgery Use heparin bridge INR should be <3.5 for surgical procedures. 36 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 36) A patient presents with INR=4. What should you do? Extract the tooth Refer to physician to lower INR Defer treatment Use local hemostatics INR >3.5 increases bleeding risk; should be reduced first. 37 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 37) A patient has INR 3. What should you do? Proceed with extraction Refer to physician Defer treatment Adjust warfarin first INR 2-4 is within therapeutic range for most procedures. 38 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 38) A patient on warfarin has INR 3.5. Can you proceed with extraction? Extract normally Defer treatment Refer to physician Reduce warfarin dose first INR <4 is generally safe for simple extractions. 39 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 39) What test monitors warfarin therapy? INR PTT Bleeding time Platelet count INR measures warfarin’s anticoagulant effect. 40 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 40) What is the best anesthetic for buccal/lingual infiltration in tooth #85? Articaine Bupivacaine Lidocaine Mepivacaine Articaine has superior infiltration properties. 41 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 41) An IBD patient has tooth pain. What analgesic is safest? Acetaminophen Ibuprofen Aspirin Penicillin NSAIDs (ibuprofen/aspirin) can exacerbate IBD; acetaminophen is safer. 42 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 42) A recent MI patient (<3 months) on aspirin has severe tooth pain. What is the best action? Stop aspirin Give antibiotic prophylaxis Do ECG and give to cardiologist Prescribe painkillers Recent MI patients need cardiac evaluation before dental procedures. 43 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 43) A post-MI patient takes aspirin 375mg and needs an extraction. What should you do? Give prophylactic antibiotics Use anesthetic without epinephrine Stop aspirin 5-7 days Extract without modification Low-dose aspirin doesn’t require modification for simple extractions. 44 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 44) What anesthesia is needed for extraction of lower first molar? Inferior alveolar/buccal/lingual Inferior alveolar/mental/buccal Inferior alveolar/mental/lingual Gow-Gates block Standard inferior alveolar block with buccal/lingual infiltration is sufficient. 45 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 45) What is an early sign of multiple sclerosis in a young patient? Optic neuritis Tremors Memory loss Seizures Optic neuritis is a common early MS manifestation. 46 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 46) Which disease involves autoimmune nervous system damage? Multiple sclerosis Epilepsy Stroke Meningitis MS is an autoimmune demyelinating disease. 47 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 47) A patient has trigeminal nerve symptoms with brain and cerebellar involvement. What is the diagnosis? Multiple sclerosis Parkinson's disease Alzheimer's disease Epilepsy MS can affect multiple CNS areas including trigeminal pathways. 48 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 48) After anesthesia, a patient develops shortness of breath and urticaria within minutes. What allergy type? Type I Type II Type III Type IV Immediate anaphylaxis is Type I. 49 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 49) A child develops facial sensitivity during examination. What allergy type is this? Type I Type II Type III Type IV Rapid onset suggests Type I hypersensitivity. 50 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 50) A patient develops an immediate allergic reaction in clinic. What type is this? Type I Type II Type III Type IV Immediate reactions are Type I (IgE-mediated). 51 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 51) What type of hypersensitivity is latex allergy? Type I (immediate) Type II (immediate) Type I (delayed) Type II (delayed) Latex allergy is IgE-mediated Type I hypersensitivity. 52 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 52) A patient has an allergic reaction during a dental procedure. What is the most likely cause? Latex Delayed hypersensitivity Anesthetic allergy Antibiotic allergy Latex is a common allergen in dental settings. 53 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 53) A patient develops dizziness and nausea 30 minutes after endo treatment. What is the likely cause? Latex sensitivity Anesthetic toxicity Vasovagal syncope Infection Latex allergy can cause delayed hypersensitivity reactions. 54 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 54) Which immunoglobulin mediates latex allergy? IgM IgG IgE IgA Latex allergy is a Type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity. 55 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 55) Which condition is NOT associated with diabetes mellitus? Xerostomia Cheilitis Burning mouth syndrome Leukoplakia Leukoplakia is not directly caused by diabetes. 56 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 56) Positive Paul-Bunnell test indicates infection with which virus? Epstein-Barr virus Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex Varicella-zoster Paul-Bunnell test detects EBV (mononucleosis). 57 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 57) Peg lateral abnormality occurs during which developmental stage? Histodifferentiation Morphodifferentiation Apposition Calcification Morphodifferentiation determines tooth shape. 58 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 58) What determines the direction of facial infection spread? Type of teeth Muscle attachments Bone density Blood supply Infections spread along planes of muscle attachments. 59 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 59) A picture shows white spots on the lower lip. How would you describe them? Corrugated Speckled Ulcerated Nodular Speckled describes irregular white lesions. 60 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 60) Which condition is strongly associated with smoking? Cleft lip and palate Pierre Robin syndrome Treacher Collins syndrome Down syndrome Smoking is a major risk factor for clefts. 61 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 61) Pilocarpine is prescribed for which condition? Sjögren's syndrome Systemic lupus Rheumatoid arthritis Scleroderma Pilocarpine stimulates saliva in Sjögren’s. 62 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 62) A patient has cleft palate, glossitis, and retrognathia. What syndrome is this? Pierre Robin syndrome Treacher Collins syndrome Down syndrome Marfan syndrome Pierre Robin syndrome includes this triad. 63 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 63) A child is born with cleft lip and palate. What is the most likely cause? Folic acid deficiency Vitamin C deficiency Antibiotic use Analgesic use Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy increases cleft risk. 64 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 64) What is a major cause of cleft lip and palate? Smoking Alcohol Radiation exposure Vitamin C deficiency Maternal smoking increases cleft risk. 65 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 65) A picture shows unilateral cleft lip and palate. What is this? Cleft lip and palate Pierre Robin sequence Treacher Collins syndrome Van der Woude syndrome This is a classic presentation of cleft lip/palate. 66 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 66) A patient has irritant stimuli without inflammation. What is the diagnosis? Agranulocytosis Thrombocytopenic purpura Leukemia Lichen planus Agranulocytosis causes mucosal vulnerability without inflammation. 67 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 67) A patient has angular cheilitis and glossitis. Which supplement is needed? Zinc Iron Vitamin C Vitamin D Both conditions can result from iron deficiency. 68 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 68) Which supplement is needed for angular cheilitis? Vitamin B Vitamin C Iron Zinc Vitamin B deficiency often causes angular cheilitis. 69 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 69) Which supplement is needed for glossitis? Vitamin B Vitamin C Iron Zinc Iron deficiency commonly causes glossitis. 70 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 70) A patient with iron deficiency has difficulty swallowing. What is the diagnosis? Plummer-Vinson syndrome Esophageal cancer GERD Achalasia Plummer-Vinson involves iron deficiency and dysphagia. 71 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 71) A patient has difficulty swallowing, glossitis, and angular cheilitis. What syndrome is this? Plummer-Vinson syndrome Sjögren's syndrome Behçet's syndrome Steven-Johnson syndrome Plummer-Vinson is associated with iron deficiency and these symptoms. 72 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 72) MCV is normal with increased reticulocytes. What deficiency anemia is this? Iron G6PD Folate Vitamin B12 G6PD deficiency causes hemolysis and reticulocytosis. 73 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 73) A blood test shows low MCV. What is the likely diagnosis? Iron deficiency anemia Vitamin B12 deficiency Folate deficiency Hemolytic anemia Low MCV indicates microcytic anemia, most commonly from iron deficiency. 74 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 74) A patient with MCV 70 and atrophic glossitis needs which supplement? Iron Folate Vitamin B12 Vitamin C Low MCV and glossitis suggest iron deficiency. 75 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 75) A patient has MCV of 90. What type of anemia is this? Microcytic anemia Normocytic anemia Macrocytic anemia Hemolytic anemia MCV 80-100 is normocytic. 76 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 76) A patient has iron deficiency anemia and normocytic anemia with increased reticulocytes. What is the cause? Iron deficiency G6PD deficiency Folate deficiency Vitamin B12 deficiency G6PD deficiency can cause hemolysis and reticulocytosis. 77 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 77) What type of anemia is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency? Microcytic anemia Macrocytic anemia Normocytic anemia Hemolytic anemia B12 deficiency causes macrocytic anemia. 78 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 78) A patient has rare midface headaches. What is the most likely diagnosis? Cluster headache Migraine headache Trigeminal neuralgia Sinusitis Trigeminal neuralgia causes severe facial pain. 79 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 79) Which type of headache is relieved by 100% oxygen inhalation? Cluster headache Migraine Tension headache Sinus headache Cluster headaches often respond to oxygen therapy. 80 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 80) What condition is associated with foot pitting edema? Infective endocarditis Heart failure Hypertension Hypoglycemia Heart failure commonly causes pitting edema. 81 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 81) A patient presents with pitting edema. Which condition is this associated with? Heart failure Liver cirrhosis Renal failure Hypothyroidism Pitting edema is a classic sign of heart failure. 82 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 82) What oral manifestation is seen in end-stage renal failure? Gingivostomatitis Halitosis Aphthous stomatitis Oral thrush Halitosis is common due to uremic toxins. 83 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 83) A kidney failure patient has a white non-scrub lesion on the buccal side. What is it? Uremic frost/stomatitis Lichen planus Leukoplakia Candidiasis Uremic frost/stomatitis is characteristic of renal failure. 84 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 84) Which oral lesion with bad odor appears in last-stage renal failure? Uremic stomatitis Candidiasis Lichen planus Angular cheilitis Uremic stomatitis is associated with bad odor in renal failure patients. 85 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 85) What are the oral signs of end-stage renal failure? Palatal hemorrhagia Uremic stomatitis Candidiasis Aphthous ulcers Uremic stomatitis is a common oral manifestation of renal failure. 86 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 86) A renal failure patient is allergic to acetaminophen. What painkiller should be prescribed? Ibuprofen Oxycodone or Tramadol Aspirin Naproxen Oxycodone or Tramadol are safer alternatives for renal patients allergic to acetaminophen. 87 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 87) What is the safest analgesic for a patient with asthma? Acetaminophen Ibuprofen Aspirin Naproxen Acetaminophen does not exacerbate asthma symptoms. 88 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 88) What is the safest medication for pain relief in a pregnant woman? Acetaminophen Ibuprofen Aspirin Naproxen Acetaminophen is the safest analgesic during pregnancy. 89 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 89) What is the safest analgesic for a renal patient? Acetaminophen Ibuprofen Aspirin Naproxen Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver and is safer for renal patients. 90 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 90) A pregnant woman has a mass resembling a pyogenic granuloma, but “pyogenic” is not in the options. What is it? Papilloma Pregnancy tumor Fibroma Hemangioma “Pregnancy tumor” is a term used for pyogenic granuloma during pregnancy. 91 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 91) A non-pregnant patient has a lesion resembling a pyogenic granuloma. What is the treatment? Removal Corticosteroid injection Laser therapy Observation Surgical removal is the standard treatment for such lesions. 92 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 92) A picture of pyogenic granuloma is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis? Fibroma Pyogenic granuloma Hemangioma Lipoma Pyogenic granuloma is a common reactive lesion in pregnancy. 93 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 93) A pregnant woman in her 9th month has a pyogenic granuloma interfering with biting. What should you do? Give antibiotics Monitor without intervention Wait until delivery for removal Immediate removal Immediate removal is safe in the third trimester if the lesion is symptomatic. 94 / 94 Category: Oral medicine, oral surgery and medically compromised patients 94) A pregnant patient in her first trimester has severe pain in the upper 4th tooth and cannot sleep. What is the best action? Give her an antibiotic Give a sedative and treat after birth Open access and refer to an endodontist Prescribe painkillers only The safest option is to refer to an endodontist for proper management during pregnancy. Your score is The average score is 38% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Share Facebook X LinkedIn Pinterest Reddit Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Share via Email Print
