SDLE MCQ SDLE Mock Test Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 15% Restorative : 30% Prosthodontics : 17.5% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 10% Periodontics and Implant : 17.5% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 10% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) What is the name of a fracture involving dentin, cementum, and pulp? Enamel fracture Complicated Root fracture Uncomplicated A fracture involving dentin, cementum, and pulp is called a root fracture. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) What is the treatment for a small pulp exposure in a permanent tooth after 20 minutes? Pulpotomy Extraction Direct pulp capping RCT Direct pulp capping is the best option for small exposures. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) A patient has broken instruments in tooth #26 with no symptoms. What is the management? Extraction Try to bypass and re-RCT Apical surgery Root amputation If asymptomatic, attempt to bypass the broken instrument. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) What is a sign of incomplete pulp removal during pulpotomy? Swelling Discoloration Uncontrolled hemorrhage Pain Uncontrolled hemorrhage indicates incomplete pulp removal. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) What is the most commonly reported dental trauma in children? Complicated crown fracture Avulsion Uncomplicated crown fracture Root fracture Avulsion is the most common trauma in pediatric dentistry. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) A canal is 21 mm, but after cleaning and shaping, the file reaches only 19 mm. What happened? Perforation Blockage Ledge Fracture A ledge can prevent the file from reaching the full length. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) What should you do if you find a pulp stone during pulp extirpation? Explain to the patient and refer to an endodontist Monitor Extract Continue treatment Pulp stones should be managed by an endodontist. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) A tooth with a metal crown responds to EPT but not cold. What is the diagnosis? Irreversible Necrotic Reversible Normal A false positive EPT response with no response to cold indicates necrosis. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) A mid-root circular radiolucency is observed in an asymptomatic tooth. What is the next step? Perform RCT Follow-up Investigate pulp status Take CBCT RCT is indicated for internal resorption. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) What is the most common cause of a broken file during RCT? Inadequate access cavity Excessive force Poor file quality Curved canals Inadequate access cavity increases the risk of file separation. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) A patient has pain on biting on teeth #44 and #45. Large amalgam restorations are present. What is the best diagnostic test? Palpation Examination and transillumination PA Percussion Pain on biting suggests percussion testing. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) A patient with a history of trauma and a calcified canal. What causes the yellowish tooth color? External resorption Necrosis Internal resorption Calcification Calcification of the canal can cause yellowish discoloration. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) A patient with a sinus tract and pain on tooth 26 after percussion. What is the next step? Sinus tract tracing PA EPT Extraction Sinus tract tracing helps identify the source of infection. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) What type of resorption is associated with intracanal bleaching? External replacement External cervical Surface Internal Intracanal bleaching can cause external cervical resorption. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) How long should calcium hydroxide be placed in the canal for antimicrobial effect? 4 weeks 24 hours 3 days 2 weeks Calcium hydroxide requires 2 weeks for optimal antimicrobial effect. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) What is the effect of intrusion of primary central incisors on the permanent successor? No effect Devitalization Palatal orientation of crown Hypoplasia Intrusion of primary teeth can cause palatal displacement of permanent successors. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) A pediatric patient with a complicated crown fracture and small pulp exposure within 3 hours. What is the treatment? Apexification RCT Vital pulp therapy Conventional RCT with apical surgery Vital pulp therapy is the best option for small exposures in young patients. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) What is the immediate clinical management for an intracanal medicament accident? Antibiotics Surgical intervention Follow-up Re-RCT Monitoring is often sufficient if no symptoms are present. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) Calcium hydroxide extruded beyond the apex with no symptoms. What is the management? RCT Surgical removal Extraction Follow-up Follow-up is sufficient if there are no symptoms. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) What type of splint is used for intruded teeth? No splint Flexible splint Semi-rigid splint Rigid splint Flexible splints allow for physiological movement. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) A patient with a suspected VRF and an isolated pocket. What is the best initial investigation? CBCT Occlusal radiograph Bitewing PA CBCT provides the most detailed imaging for VRF. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) A patient has irreversible pulpitis in tooth #37 and an impacted #38 with a large cyst. What is the first step? Treat #37 and inform the patient No treatment Extract #38 Inform the patient about the cyst Treat the symptomatic tooth first, then address the cyst. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) What is the shape of the access cavity for upper premolars (teeth #4 and #5)? Triangular Oval Round Rectangular Oval access allows for proper instrumentation of premolar canals. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) During pulpotomy, if bleeding does not stop and becomes darker red, what does this indicate? Pulpectomy Extraction Monitor Continue pulpotomy Uncontrolled bleeding indicates the need for pulpectomy. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) What is the treatment for a tooth with open apex? Apexification RCT Apexogenesis Pulp revascularization Pulp revascularization is the preferred treatment for open apex teeth. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) What is the main drawback of using MTA in direct pulp capping (DPC)? Long setting time Poor sealing ability High cost Potential toxicity MTA has a long setting time, which can be a drawback in clinical use. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) A necrotic immature central incisor with a history of trauma requires which treatment? Pulpotomy RCT with MTA Extraction RCT MTA promotes apexification in immature teeth. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) A 4-year-old with intruded primary incisors touching the permanent buds. What is the management? Monitor Allow for spontaneous eruption Extract the primary carefully Reposition and splint Extraction is recommended to prevent damage to permanent teeth. 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) During instrumentation, a calcified canal suddenly disappears. What is the cause? Ledge Perforation Calcification Bifurcation Bifurcation can cause the canal to split and disappear. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) How long should a child’s avulsed tooth be splinted if the extraoral time is less than 1 hour? 4 weeks 2 weeks 8 weeks 6 weeks A 2-week splint is recommended for short extraoral time. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) What is the best restoration for a class V cavity in a patient with Sjogren's syndrome? RMGIC Amalgam GIC Composite GIC is ideal for patients with Sjogren's syndrome due to its moisture tolerance and fluoride release. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) Which cement has the potential for fluoride release? Polycarboxylate Resin cement Zinc phosphate Zinc phosphosilicate Zinc phosphosilicate cement releases fluoride, providing anticariogenic benefits. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) A resin composite restoration has 1 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Both RMGIC base Calcium hydroxide liner No liner Using both calcium hydroxide and RMGIC provides pulp protection and a stable base. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) Which restoration for posterior teeth is both aesthetic and durable? High filler composite RMGI Low filler composite Amalgam High filler composite provides strength and aesthetics, making it suitable for posterior teeth. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best action? Restoration Emphasize oral hygiene instructions Fluoride varnish Fluoride gel Emphasizing oral hygiene helps prevent further decalcification and improves overall dental health. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) A 62-year-old patient has posterior recession and arrested root caries. What is the best treatment? Systemic fluoride Topical fluoride GIC restoration Composite restoration GIC restoration is ideal for arrested root caries due to its adhesion and fluoride release. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) A class I amalgam restoration on a lower molar has a fractured cusp. What is the likely cause? Under-contoured restoration Over-contoured restoration High point contact Undermined tooth structure Undermined tooth structure due to caries or improper preparation can lead to cusp fracture. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) Which restoration type is most prone to polymerization shrinkage? Class II Class III Class I Class IV Class I restorations are most prone to shrinkage due to their large surface area. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) A broken tooth cannot accommodate a rubber dam. What is the best alternative? Use a clamp No isolation Place on adjacent teeth Cotton roll isolation Placing the rubber dam on adjacent teeth ensures proper isolation for the broken tooth. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) Which type of dentine is deposited in response to very deep caries? Reparative Primary Secondary Reactionary Reparative dentine forms in response to deep caries to protect the pulp. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) A pediatric patient swallows a clamp. How can this be prevented in the future? Use a rubber dam Use dental floss Use a smaller clamp Avoid using clamps Dental floss tied to the clamp prevents it from being swallowed or aspirated. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) Why is polyacrylate cement preferred over zinc phosphate? Strength Ease of use Biocompatibility Cost-effectiveness Polyacrylate is more biocompatible and less irritating to the pulp compared to zinc phosphate. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) What is the dentist's position when working on teeth #41 and #31? 9 o'clock 7 o'clock 11 o'clock 12 o'clock The 12 o'clock position provides optimal access to the mandibular anterior teeth. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) What is the best dentist position for treating teeth #41 and #31? 7 o'clock 9 o'clock 12 o'clock 11 o'clock The 12 o'clock position provides optimal access to the mandibular anterior teeth. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) What happens if alginate is left under a wet towel for an hour before pouring? Syneresis Shrinkage Expansion Imbibition Imbibition causes the alginate to absorb water, leading to dimensional changes. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) A deep carious lesion is indicated for extraction. Which of the following criteria helps in choosing the type of extraction? Percussion 3 site caries Gingival swelling in buccal Pulpal pain The extent of caries (3 site caries) is a critical factor in deciding the extraction method. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) What type of collagen is present in the pulp during development? Type 3 Type 1 Type 2 Type 4 Type 3 collagen is the primary collagen type in the pulp during development. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Zinc oxide Calcium hydroxide RMGIC GIC Calcium hydroxide is ideal for deep class V restorations to protect the pulp. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? GIC RMGIC Calcium hydroxide Zinc oxide GIC provides a protective barrier and adhesion for deep class V restorations. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) An older patient presents with thickening around the apex of a tooth. What is the cause? Trauma Physiologic remodeling Infection Cementum deposition Continuous cementum deposition throughout life can cause thickening around the apex. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) A 15-year-old patient with pain and radiolucency under #46 wants extraction, but the mother is unsure. What is the best action? Refuse extraction Do the patient's desire Ask for parental consent No treatment Parental consent is required for minors, and the dentist should discuss options with both parties. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) What modification is needed for an onlay when the marginal ridge is less than 1.6 mm? Convergent occlusal walls Divergent occlusal walls Oblique walls Parallel walls Divergent occlusal walls provide better retention and resistance for onlays. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) Why is water spray used during cavity preparation? To decrease dentine heating To clean the field To reduce dentinal fluid movement To prevent particle inhalation Water spray cools the tooth, preventing heat-induced damage to the pulp. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) What should be done if composite is unavailable for an MOD cavity? No treatment GIC restoration Amalgam restoration Temporary restoration A temporary restoration allows time to obtain the appropriate materials for a permanent restoration. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) What is the best restoration after conservative access opening on tooth #11? No restoration Composite restoration Crown Amalgam restoration Composite is ideal for conservative restorations due to its aesthetic and adhesive properties. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the most suitable action? Fluoride varnish Restoration Fluoride gel Reinforce oral hygiene instructions Reinforcing oral hygiene helps prevent further decalcification and improves overall dental health. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) What does chronic gagging primarily cause? Erosion Abrasion Attrition Abfraction Chronic gagging can lead to erosion due to stomach acid exposure. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) What is the canine proportion if the lateral incisor is 5 mm? 4.2 6.4 5.3 3.1 The canine proportion is typically 1.6 times the width of the lateral incisor. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) What can impinging clamp pressure on tissue cause? Swelling Recession Bleeding Infection Excessive clamp pressure can lead to gingival recession over time. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) During post preparation, bleeding from the canal doesn’t stop. What is the next step? Take a PA radiograph Immediate MTA placement Place a temporary filling Wait and observe A PA radiograph helps assess the extent of the issue and guides further treatment. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) When should polysulfide impressions be poured? 1 hour 15 minutes Immediately 1 week Polysulfide impressions should be poured within 1 hour to ensure accuracy. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) Which factor indicates a high risk of caries? Fluorosis Good oral hygiene Open contact Using miswak Open contacts trap food and bacteria, increasing the risk of caries. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) What is the best restoration for caries extending to the DEJ? Amalgam RMGIC GIC Composite RMGIC is ideal for caries near the DEJ due to its adhesion and fluoride release properties. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) A class I restoration with deep caries has 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What base should be used? GIC amalgam RMGIC Zinc oxide RMGIC is ideal for deep caries with minimal dentin thickness due to its strength and fluoride release. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) What is the most abundant component of dentin by weight? Organic material Water Collagen Inorganic material Inorganic material (hydroxyapatite) makes up the majority of dentin by weight. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) Which clamp is used for a class V restoration? 212 A13 A12 W8 The 212 clamp is designed for class V restorations, providing optimal retention and stability. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) A 52-year-old patient has a deep stained groove in tooth #36 with no softness. What is the best treatment? No treatment Fissure sealant Class I composite PRR If there is no softness or caries, no treatment is necessary. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) What is the dentist's position when working on the buccal of quadrant 1 and palate of quadrant 2? 9 o'clock 8 o'clock 6 o'clock 11-12 o'clock The 9 o'clock position provides optimal access to both the buccal and palatal surfaces. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) A deep class II restoration shows good margins but bone loss in the area. What is affected? Periodontium Pulp Enamel Dentin Bone loss indicates periodontal involvement, likely due to the restoration's proximity to the bone. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) What increases the retention of pit and fissure sealants? Acid etching Air abrasion No treatment Bonding agent Acid etching creates microporosities in the enamel, improving sealant retention. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) Which instrument is used to finish the buccal and lingual proximal walls? Enamel hatchet Chisel Gingival margin trimmer Excavator An enamel hatchet is designed for precise finishing of proximal walls. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) What happens during syneresis and imbibition of alginate? Loss of water (syneresis) Shrinkage Expansion Absorption of water (imbibition) Syneresis is the loss of water, while imbibition is the absorption of water, affecting alginate stability. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) A patient wants to place a final crown with temporary cement to evaluate sensitivity. Which cement is best? Non-eugenol zinc oxide Glass ionomer Resin cement Zinc phosphate Non-eugenol zinc oxide is ideal for temporary cementation due to its biocompatibility. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) A patient has proximal white spots but no radiographic evidence of caries. What is the best treatment? GIC restoration No treatment Composite restoration Fluoridation Fluoridation helps remineralize enamel and prevent further decay. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) A 60-year-old patient's radiograph shows increased cementum deposition compared to a 25-year-old radiograph. What is the cause? Decreased enamel thickness Increased cementum deposition Increased alveolar bone thickness Decreased dentin thickness Cementum deposition increases with age, leading to thicker cementum layers. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) Which cement is most irritating to the pulp? Resin Zinc phosphate GIC Polycarboxylate Zinc phosphate is highly acidic and can irritate the pulp. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) A patient experiences severe pain during in-office bleaching. What is the likely cause? High pH of bleaching agent Gingival bleaching Light intensity Tooth sensitivity Incorrect placement of the rubber dam can cause gingival irritation and pain during bleaching. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) What happens when filler content in a restoration is increased? Decreased strength Increased wear resistance Increased shrinkage Increased hydrophilicity Higher filler content improves wear resistance and durability of the restoration. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) A patient with attrition has severe cervical pain. What is the likely cause? Reversible pulpitis Irreversible pulpitis Dentin hypersensitivity Cracked tooth Attrition exposes dentin, leading to hypersensitivity and pain. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) What is the best treatment for craze lines? Veneer No treatment Occlusal reduction Full crown Craze lines are superficial and typically do not require treatment unless symptomatic. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) Why is GIC preferred over composite in some cases? Higher strength Fluoride release Lower cost Better thermal expansion GIC releases fluoride, providing anticariogenic benefits. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) What is the advantage of restoring distal first premolar and mesial second premolar in one visit? Improved aesthetics Faster procedure Better contact Less cost Restoring both teeth in one visit ensures proper contact and occlusion. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) A patient's uvula raises on one side but not the other. Which nerve is responsible? Facial nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve Vagus nerve Hypoglossal nerve The vagus nerve controls the muscles of the soft palate, including the uvula. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) What causes gypsum to break during flasking? Exothermic reaction Improper mixing Shrinkage Insufficient bulk Insufficient bulk of gypsum material leads to weak areas that can break during flasking. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) Why is acid etching done before restorative treatment? Prevent microleakage All of the above Improve adhesion Prevent thermal exchange Acid etching creates microporosities in the enamel, improving adhesion and preventing microleakage. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) A patient with a recent gold onlay experiences pain with temperature changes. What is the likely cause? Allergy to the restoration Irritation from cement Unpolished restoration Occlusal imbalance Irritation from the cement used can cause sensitivity to temperature changes. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) What causes reduced vertical dimension in a patient with short teeth? Bone loss Tooth-to-tooth contact Trauma Periodontal disease Tooth-to-tooth contact from attrition leads to reduced vertical dimension over time. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) A patient has white spots after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best treatment? Fluoride gel Restoration Fluoride varnish Reinforce oral hygiene Reinforcing oral hygiene helps remineralize the enamel and prevent further decalcification. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) A patient with a habit of scratching their gingiva has recession and root caries. What is the first treatment? GIC restoration Periodontal surgery Composite restoration Fluoride application GIC restoration is ideal for root caries due to its adhesion and fluoride release properties. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) A patient has a small amalgam restoration in #16 that needs replacement. What is the best option? Composite Cast ceramic Glass ionomer Gold Composite is the most aesthetic and functional option for replacing small amalgam restorations. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) A patient wants to replace teeth #14 and #15. What is the best bridge design? 5-unit non-rigid connector 5-unit fixed-fixed 4-unit (16, 13) 6-unit A 4-unit bridge from #16 to #13 provides adequate support for replacing #14 and #15. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) A patient has edge-to-edge occlusion. Which type of restoration is best? Porcelain veneer Full crown Onlay Composite veneer A full crown provides the necessary strength and support for edge-to-edge occlusion. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) What is the concentration of hydrofluoric acid used for etching porcelain in case of chipping? Hydrofluoric acid 5-10% Hydrofluoric acid 3-5% Phosphoric acid 37% Sulfuric acid Hydrofluoric acid 5-10% is commonly used for etching porcelain to repair chipping. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) A lower molar (#7) with a conservative RCT access and intact walls needs restoration. What is the best option? Composite core Prefabricated parallel post with composite core Amalgam core Cast post and core A prefabricated parallel post with a composite core provides adequate retention and support. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) What is the minimum preparation thickness for a metal retainer of a resin-bonded bridge? 2-0.7 mm 1-0.5 mm 4-1.5 mm 3-1.1 mm A minimum preparation thickness of 1-0.5 mm is required for adequate strength and retention. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) A patient’s crown fell three times after cementation. What is the best management? Use different cement Extract the tooth Do endo and post & core Re-cement the crown Endodontic treatment followed by a post and core provides better retention for the crown. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) A patient has an FPD with roughness and dental floss breaks. What is the management? Remake the FPD Re-cement the FPD Modify the open margin in the lab Modify the open margin on the dental chair Roughness and open margins require remaking the FPD for proper fit and function. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) A patient wants to extract a lateral incisor. What is the temporary FPD pontic design? Ovate Modified ridge lap Conical/bullet Sanitary An ovate pontic is the most aesthetic choice for a temporary FPD replacing a lateral incisor. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) What is a disadvantage of a zirconia core? Marginal discrepancy High cost Weak bonding with porcelain Fracture Zirconia cores can sometimes lead to marginal discrepancies due to their rigid nature. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) A patient has a class IV fracture on the mesial side of an anterior tooth involving the contact area. Where should the contact be placed? Gingival third Middle third Incisal third Whole mesial contact surface Placing the contact in the incisal third restores function and esthetics effectively. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) After tooth preparation, a putty index is applied to a wax-up cast, and a temporary is made intraorally. What is this technique called? Indirect-direct None of the above Indirect Direct Direct temporization involves creating the temporary restoration directly in the patient’s mouth. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) A patient has a crown on an upper molar, and the jaw moves anterior-superiorly during closure. What type of interference is this? Working Eccentric Centric Protrusive Anterior-superior movement during closure indicates centric interference. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) A patient has two molars with fallen crowns. What is the best long-term treatment? Crown lengthening Long post Splint teeth together Recement with RelyX Crown lengthening provides better retention for the crowns in the long term. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) Which pontic design is hardest to clean? Sanitary Ridge lap Ovate Modified ridge lap A ridge lap pontic is difficult to clean due to its close contact with the ridge. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) A patient has a broken post and core. What is the best treatment? Extract the tooth Fabricate a new fiber post Cementation with GIC Re-cement the post and core A new fiber post provides better retention and support for the crown. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) A picture shows a tooth preparation with a bur in the wrong angulation. What will happen? Overcontour preparation Fracture Undercut Poor retention Wrong angulation can lead to undercuts, compromising the fit of the restoration. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) What type of occlusion is best for full-mouth rehabilitation? Group function None of the above Canine guidance Bilateral Canine guidance provides stable and functional occlusion for full-mouth rehabilitation. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) A patient has gum recession and a small restoration on an anterior tooth. What is aesthetically important? Vertical height of gum MIC Mesiodistal width of restoration Buccal-lingual width of gum The vertical height of the gum is crucial for esthetics in cases of recession. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) During impression for a PFM crown, there is a void in the facial surface margin. What should be done? Remake impression Proceed with the impression Use a different impression material Fill the void with wax A void in the impression margin requires remaking the impression for accuracy. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) A patient with stable MIC wants to construct a crown. Where should the crown be placed? CO MIC CR Between them The crown should be placed in maximum intercuspation (MIC) for stability and function. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) A frenum interferes with the denture. What should be done? Vestibuloplasty No action needed Adjust the denture Frenectomy Vestibuloplasty can relieve frenum interference with the denture. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) A patient is missing teeth #38, #37, #36, and #35. Where should the indirect retainer be placed? Indirect retainer on #43 Horseshoe major connector Direct retainer on #43 None of the above An indirect retainer on #43 provides stability for the RPD in this case. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) What should be done if there is a bony undercut in the anterior maxilla and tuberosity region? No intervention, it’s good for retention Relief anterior, surgical correction posterior Remove the undercut on both sides Relieve the denture Removing the undercut on both sides ensures proper denture fit and function. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) A patient with a long-term complete denture has a red lesion in the palate. What is the diagnosis? None of the above Denture stomatitis Papillary hyperplasia Epulis fissuratum Denture stomatitis is a common cause of red lesions in the palate. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) What happens if there is excess monomer during packing? Denture will shrink Pink color will not show Denture will warp Granules appear on the palate Excess monomer can cause granules to appear on the denture surface. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) A patient has a mobile, hopeless tooth #31 in an RPD. What should be done? Extract the tooth No action needed Repeat the entire RPD Stabilize with a wrought wire clasp Stabilizing with a wrought wire clasp is a conservative approach. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) What is a complication of an Aker clasp? Poor retention Mobility Recession Fracture An Aker clasp can cause mobility in the abutment tooth over time. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) A tooth did not require a survey crown after preparation. What should be done? Full coverage crown No action needed Contour Restoration Contouring the tooth ensures proper retention for the RPD. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) How many seconds does it take to soften Aluwax? 90 seconds 120 seconds 60 seconds 30 seconds Aluwax softens in about 30 seconds when heated. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) A patient is missing teeth #35 and #36. Where should the indirect retainer be placed? No indirect retainer needed On #45 and #46 embrasure On #43 and #45 On #45 and #46 No indirect retainer is needed for Kennedy Class III cases. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) What material is preferred for the base of an RPD? Acrylic resin Cobalt chromium None of the above Titanium Acrylic resin is commonly used for RPD bases. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) A patient has Kennedy Class I with a usable undercut on the most posterior abutment. What clasp should be used? Back action clasp RPA Ring clasp RPI An RPI clasp is suitable for Kennedy Class I cases with usable undercuts. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) A patient with a severely resorbed ridge needs a new mandibular denture. What is the best impression technique? Mucostatic Neutral zone Admix Selective pressure An admix impression technique is ideal for severely resorbed ridges. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) A patient lost tooth #33 after having an RPD for teeth #32-42. What is the ideal management? Add canine with wire Implant with locator No replacement Implant with crown Adding a canine with wire is a simple solution for replacing a missing tooth. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) At which stage is acrylic packed during denture fabrication? Rubbery stage Sticky stage Stiff stage Dough stage Acrylic is packed at the dough stage for proper adaptation. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) Which teeth are most affected by bone resorption during orthodontic treatment? Lower incisors Upper incisors Molars Canines Upper incisors are most susceptible to bone resorption during orthodontic treatment. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) What is the best appliance to retain crossbite correction? Quad helix Essex retainer No retention needed Hawley retainer A Hawley retainer is commonly used to retain crossbite correction. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) An orthodontic patient is in pain. What medication is most appropriate? Paracetamol Aspirin Ibuprofen Naproxen Paracetamol is the safest option for pain relief in orthodontic patients. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) A 32-year-old patient with a prognathic mandible has 6 mm of tooth show and is concerned about aesthetics. What is the best treatment? Camouflage treatment Mandibular expansion Orthognathic surgery Maxillary expansion Orthognathic surgery is the best option for significant skeletal discrepancies. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) A patient with fixed appliances has severe laceration and ulceration due to an extended wire. What is the best management? Apply gauze Apply wax Reassure the patient Clip the wire Clipping the wire is the most effective way to relieve irritation. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) A 9-year-old patient has crowding in the lower jaw. Which tooth is most likely malaligned? Canine First premolar Second premolar Lateral incisor Lateral incisors are often malaligned in cases of crowding. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) A patient wants to finish orthodontic treatment quickly. What is the best option? Surgery Cortical perforation Accelerated orthodontics No treatment Cortical perforation can accelerate tooth movement. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) What is the primary characteristic of maxillary hypoplasia? Open bite Underdeveloped maxilla Crossbite Overdeveloped mandible Maxillary hypoplasia is characterized by an underdeveloped maxilla. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A 13-year-old patient has mouth breathing. What is the best treatment? Extraction Headgear Distalization Expansion Expansion is often needed to address mouth breathing and associated dental issues. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) A child has Class II malocclusion and mandibular hyperdivergence. What is the best treatment? High-pull headgear No treatment Facemask Functional appliance High-pull headgear is effective for managing hyperdivergent Class II cases. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) A pediatric patient has an ankylosed primary molar and a missing permanent successor. What is the best management? Extract the primary molar No treatment Refer to a specialist Wait for natural exfoliation Ankylosed primary molars with missing successors require specialist intervention. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) A 6-year-old patient with low caries risk comes for a follow-up. What X-ray is needed? Periapical OPG Panoramic 2 bitewings Bitewings are sufficient for low-risk patients. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) When should occlusion be checked after placing an SSC? At the next appointment After cementation Before cementation No need to check Occlusion should be checked before cementation to ensure proper fit. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) A 2-year-old caries-free child uses a bottle at night. What fluoride regimen is recommended? Smear size non-fluoridated toothpaste Pea size fluoridated toothpaste Smear size fluoridated toothpaste Pea size non-fluoridated toothpaste A smear of fluoridated toothpaste is recommended for young children. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) A 4-year-old pediatric patient has multiple surface caries. What is the best restoration? Stainless steel crown (SSC) Amalgam GIC Composite SSCs are durable and ideal for extensive caries in primary teeth. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) A 3-year-old patient has multiple caries. What is the best management? GIC Composite RMGIC Amalgam RMGIC is ideal for extensive caries in young children. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) What should be used to prevent injury during pediatric dental procedures? Rubber dam No protection needed Mouth prop Bite block A bite block helps stabilize the jaw and prevent injury. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) A girl has neck scratches and petechiae on the palate. What is the most likely cause? Emotional abuse Sexual abuse Neglect Physical abuse These signs are often associated with sexual abuse. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) What is the advantage of using GIC with SCC? High cost Soluble Low compressive strength Fast setting GIC has a fast setting time, making it convenient for pediatric patients. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A pediatric patient has multiple surface lesions and heavy plaque. What is the best restoration? Amalgam Composite RMGIC SSC RMGIC is ideal for extensive caries and high plaque levels. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) When cementum is denuded, exposing dentin, what is the likely cause? Vertical root fracture Developmental defect Caries Trauma Vertical root fractures can expose dentin and create communication between pulp and PDL. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) What determines the type of floss to be used for a patient? Manual dexterity Proximal contact tightness Roughness of contact Patient preference Patient preference is a key factor in determining the type of floss to use. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) A 56-year-old patient with missing teeth and generalized horizontal bone loss needs implants. What is the treatment plan? Scaling, root planning, and re-evaluation Request CBCT and proceed Request periapical radiographs and proceed Request OPG and proceed Scaling, root planning, and re-evaluation are necessary before implants. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) A patient has 6 mm from CEJ to the base of the pocket. What does this indicate? 6 mm pseudo pocket 6 mm attachment loss 2 mm pocket depth, 4 mm attachment loss 4 mm pocket depth, 2 mm attachment loss The 6 mm measurement indicates 2 mm pocket depth and 4 mm attachment loss. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) Which characteristic of the periodontal ligament (PDL) is responsible for shock absorption? Biological Chemical Physical Mechanical The PDL's physical properties allow it to absorb shock during mastication. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) A patient has recession treated with a semilunar flap and connective tissue graft. What is the procedure? Connective tissue graft Double papilla flap Semilunar flap Apically positioned flap Connective tissue grafts are used to treat recession. 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) A patient has recession of 1 mm on #43 and 2 mm on #44. What is the class of recession? Class 4 Class 3 Class 1 Class 2 Class 1 recession does not extend to the mucogingival junction. 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) A patient with poor oral hygiene, multiple caries, and malocclusion. What is the treatment sequence? Extraction OH, restoration, ortho, surgery Surgery Orthodontics The sequence involves improving oral hygiene, restoring teeth, orthodontics, and surgery if needed. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) A patient has generalized bleeding, erythema, and loss of stippling. What is the cause? Systemic disease Poor oral hygiene Over-contoured ceramic Allergy to toothpaste Allergic reactions to toothpaste can cause generalized gingival inflammation. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) A lower molar has grade III furcation involvement. What is the best way to preserve the tooth? Hemisection Root amputation Tunneling Odontoplasty Hemisection is used to preserve teeth with grade III furcation involvement. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) What is the effect of placing an orthodontic band subgingivally? Gingival enlargement Gingival recession Periodontitis Tooth mobility Subgingival orthodontic bands can cause gingival recession. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) Which statement is less likely correct about smoking and periodontal disease? Smokers have more red and orange complex bacteria Smoking decreases inflammation Smoking causes imbalance between bacteria and host response Smokers have more plaque Smokers do not necessarily have more plaque, but they have altered bacterial flora. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) A patient has a periodontal abscess with pus discharge. What is the treatment? RCT Incision and drainage Observe Extraction Incision and drainage are necessary to manage a periodontal abscess with pus. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) A patient has sensitivity, inadequate keratinized tissue, and high frenum attachment. What is the treatment? CTG Frenectomy + FGG FGG Frenectomy + CTG Frenectomy with free gingival graft (FGG) is used to address high frenum attachment and insufficient keratinized tissue. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) A patient has generalized ulceration and a body temperature of 37°C. What is the management? Observe SRP + antibiotics CHX mouthwash for 2 weeks CHX + SRP Chlorhexidine (CHX) mouthwash is the first step in managing generalized ulceration. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) What is the position of the shank during scaling? Perpendicular to long axis 45 degrees 75 degrees Parallel to long axis The shank should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth during scaling. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) What is the minimum distance between the restoration margin and the bone crest? 3-4 mm 7-8 mm 5-6 mm 1-2 mm The minimum distance is 1-2 mm to maintain biological width. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) Which instrument is used to check root surface smoothness after scaling? Mirror Chisel Explorer Hoe An explorer is used to detect roughness on root surfaces after scaling. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) What is the maximum length a curette can achieve in nonsurgical periodontal treatment? 3.75 mm 2.75 mm 4.75 mm 5.75 mm The maximum length a curette can achieve is typically 4.75 mm. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) A patient has foul odor during final exams. What is the first step? Remove pseudomembrane Antibiotics Superficial scaling Measure probing depth Removing the pseudomembrane is the first step in managing necrotizing gingivitis. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) What causes bleeding and deep pockets around an implant? Poor hygiene Excess cement Loose screw Space between implant and tooth Space between the implant and tooth can cause bleeding and pockets. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) What is the cause of a sinus tract near a cement-retained implant? Excess cement Poor hygiene Poor occlusion Loose screw Excess cement can cause sinus tracts and inflammation. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) Why is a 17-year-old patient experiencing implant mobility? Excess cement Underdeveloped jaw Poor hygiene Loose screw A 17-year-old patient’s jaw is still developing, causing mobility. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) What is the implant width for a missing 36 with 8 mm MD interocclusal? 7 mm 6 mm 8 mm 5 mm A 5 mm implant width is suitable for an 8 mm interocclusal space. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) What is the diagnosis for pain and bone loss around an implant? Peri-implantitis Implant failure Peri-implant mucositis Bone loss Peri-implantitis is characterized by pain and bone loss. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) What category does a 3.5 or 4.1 mm implant fall under? Wide Narrow Regular Extra-wide 3.5 or 4.1 mm implants are considered regular. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) What should be done if the distal implant is failing? Remove distal implant Vertical bone graft Bone augmentation Change crown Removing the failing implant is the best approach. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) Which nerve is affected if a patient feels pain on implant #37? Middle superior alveolar nerve Incisive nerve Mental nerve Inferior alveolar nerve The inferior alveolar nerve is associated with the lower molar area. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) What is the treatment for a 7 mm remaining bone height after extraction? Internal sinus lift Bone graft External sinus lift Immediate implant Internal sinus lift is suitable for 7 mm bone height. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) What causes failure of an implant in the picture? Poor crown seating Implant size Recession Insufficient keratinized tissue Insufficient keratinized tissue can lead to implant failure. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) What is the treatment for recession caused by remaining cement? Change crown Bone graft Soft tissue graft Remove cement Removing the remaining cement resolves the issue. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) What is the required distance from the interproximal implant to the crest of bone? 1.8 mm 3.4 mm 4.0 mm 2.5 mm 3.4 mm is required to preserve the papilla. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) Where should an anterior implant be placed? Incisive papilla At midline Lateral to midline Lingual papilla Anterior implants should be placed lateral to the midline. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) What is the cause of 5 mm probing with bleeding around an implant? Excess cement Poor occlusion Loose screw Poor contour A loose screw can cause probing depth and bleeding. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) What is the main advantage of screw-retained implants? Durability Retrievability Cost-effectiveness Esthetics Screw-retained implants are easier to retrieve and repair. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) A doctor with contact lenses gets a splash in the eyes. What should they do first? Apply eye drops Wash eyes Do nothing Remove lenses Removing lenses prevents further irritation. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) What is the time and temperature for dry heat sterilization? 250°F for 60 minutes 150°F for 90 minutes 320°F for 120 minutes 120°F for 30 minutes Dry heat sterilization requires 320°F for 120 minutes. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) What violates patient confidentiality? Discussing with colleagues Sharing with family Transmitting patient information via email Writing in patient records Email transmission violates confidentiality. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) When should scrubbing be initiated? Do nothing Before and after every patient Before implant surgery After touching unsterilized instruments Scrubbing is essential before implant surgery. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) What is the definition of bioethics? Ethics in public health Ethics in research Study of biological ethics Division of applied ethics in healthcare Bioethics deals with ethical issues in healthcare. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) After a needle stick injury, what is the next step after wound care? Do nothing Report the incident Continue treatment Ask the patient for blood tests Reporting the incident is necessary for follow-up. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) A patient wants ceramic anterior crowns in the whitest color, but the doctor advises against it. What should the doctor do? Proceed with the whitest shade Refuse treatment Refer to another dentist Show her suitable shades Providing suitable options respects patient autonomy. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) A cleaner gets a sharps injury from a needle covered in a bloody swab. What type of failure is this? Latent failure System failure Active failure Human error Active failure involves direct human error. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) You stick your finger while retracting during an IANB. What should you do first? Encourage bleeding Check patient history Wash the site Report Washing the site is the first step. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) What is the next step if hazards cannot be eliminated? Reduce hazards Isolate hazards Substitute hazards Use PPE Substituting hazards is the next step. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) How should a biopsy be sent to the lab? Biohazard bag with saline Regular bag Sterile container Biohazard bag with formalin Biohazard bags with formalin ensure safe transport. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) A husband wants extraction for his wife due to cost. What should the doctor do? Explain treatment options to the wife Proceed with extraction Do nothing Refuse treatment The wife should be informed and provide consent. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) A doctor tells a patient it’s good they didn’t go to another doctor. What did he violate? Professionalism Beneficence Autonomy Non-maleficence Criticizing colleagues violates professionalism. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) A patient’s family disagrees with a hopeless diagnosis. What should the nurse do? Follow the NRO Take the case to court Do not call the team Call the team The team should be called for further evaluation. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) A pregnant patient needs an abortion, but consent is taken from her husband. What did the doctor violate? Non-maleficence Patient’s rights Beneficence Autonomy Consent should be from the patient, not the husband. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) You break a file during a procedure and bypass it. What is the best management? Continue without informing Disclose to the patient Do nothing Refer to another dentist Transparency is required for patient trust. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) Which virus remains a high risk even after vaccination? HIV Hepatitis C Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis B can still pose a risk post-vaccination. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) What is included in PPE? Mask, gown, gloves Head covers, mask, gown, eye protector Gloves, face shield, gown, eye protector Gloves, mask, gown, eye protector Gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection are essential. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) When should a sharp instrument container be discarded? ¾ full Empty Completely full Half full Discarding at ¾ full prevents overfilling and injury. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) You explain complications to a patient. What principle is this? Veracity Autonomy Non-maleficence Beneficence Explaining complications respects autonomy. Your score is The average score is 33% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Share Facebook X LinkedIn Pinterest Reddit Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Share via Email Print
