SDLE MCQ SDLE Mock Test Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 15% Restorative : 30% Prosthodontics : 17.5% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 10% Periodontics and Implant : 17.5% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 10% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) What is the initial radiograph modality for suspected VRF in a crowned tooth? BT PA MRI CBCT A periapical (PA) radiograph is the initial modality for suspected VRF. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) What is the initial way to diagnose vertical root fracture (VRF)? CBCT MRI Occlusal X-ray PA CBCT is the most accurate imaging modality for diagnosing VRF. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) Which sealer can affect the tooth if left for a long time? Glass ionomer Resin-based sealer Calcium hydroxide Zinc oxide eugenol Zinc oxide eugenol can cause discoloration and irritation over time. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) What is the immediate clinical management for an intracanal medicament accident? Follow-up Re-RCT Antibiotics Surgical intervention Monitoring is often sufficient if no symptoms are present. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) Which rotary file system uses reciprocation movement? ProTaper K-file WaveOne H-file WaveOne uses a reciprocating motion for canal preparation. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) A patient with severe pain, isolated deep pocket, and bone loss distal to #47. What is the management? GTR RCT Extraction Apical surgery Extraction is often the best option for severe pain and bone loss. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) How long should calcium hydroxide be placed in the canal for optimal antimicrobial effect? 1 Week 1 Hour 1 Month 1 Day Calcium hydroxide requires at least 1 week to exert its antimicrobial effect. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) Calculate D9 of a file with size 30 and taper 0.04. 0.36 0.3 0.66 0.72 D9 = 0.30 (size) + (0.04 × 9) = 0.66. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) A canal is 21 mm, but after cleaning and shaping, the file reaches only 19 mm. What happened? Ledge Blockage Fracture Perforation A ledge can prevent the file from reaching the full length. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) How should a supracrestal perforation be managed? Seal with MTA Leave open Seal with GIC Extract MTA is the best material for sealing supracrestal perforations. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) What is the best obturation technique? Cold lateral condensation Carries Single cone Warm lateral condensation Warm lateral condensation provides a better seal. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) What is the maximum size of an endo voxel? 0.2mm 0.02mm 0.4mm 0.04mm The maximum size of an endo voxel is 0.2mm. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) Why is the smear layer removed during endo? To improve sealer adhesion None To reduce sealer setting time To allow bactericidal properties Removing the smear layer improves sealer penetration. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) Calcium hydroxide extruded beyond the apex with no symptoms. What is the management? Extraction Surgical removal Follow-up RCT Follow-up is sufficient if there are no symptoms. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) Which tooth most commonly shows 8 canal configurations? Maxillary 2nd premolar Maxillary 1st premolar Mandibular 2nd molar Mandibular 1st molar Maxillary 2nd premolars often have complex canal anatomy. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) A pediatric patient with a discolored gray crown after trauma. What is the management? Follow-up Extraction Pulpotomy RCT Follow-up is recommended if the discoloration is improving. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) What is the temperature of Endo-Ice (1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane)? -26.2°C -10°C -30°C -15°C Endo-Ice has a temperature of -26.2°C. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) A patient has an isolated pocket, negative cold test, extensive bone loss, and minimal restoration. What is the likely diagnosis? Periodontitis Endo-perio lesion True combined lesion Perio-endo lesion Perio-endo lesions present with isolated pockets and bone loss. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) During pulpotomy, if bleeding does not stop and becomes darker red, what does this indicate? Extraction Monitor Continue pulpotomy Pulpectomy Uncontrolled bleeding indicates the need for pulpectomy. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) Which type of trauma is most likely to cause pulp necrosis? Concussion Subluxation Extrusion Avulsion Avulsion often leads to pulp necrosis due to the loss of blood supply. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) A patient presents with trauma and pulp exposure 1 day ago. What is the treatment? Partial pulpotomy Direct pulp capping Pulpotomy RCT Pulpotomy is indicated for recent pulp exposure in vital teeth. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) How should an avulsed tooth be managed if the extraoral time is 45 minutes? Reimplant immediately Store in milk Dry storage Immerse in sodium fluoride Immersing in sodium fluoride can improve prognosis. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) What percentage of accessory canals are found in the apical third? 15% 74% 11% 20% 74% of accessory canals are located in the apical third. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) A child with a gingival abscess related to a primary molar. What is the likely pulp condition? Obliterated pulp Reversible pulpitis Irreversible pulpitis Hyperemia A gingival abscess is often associated with irreversible pulpitis. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) What material is placed in the clot during revascularization of immature teeth? MTA Tribiotic Calcium hydroxide Gutta-percha MTA is used to seal the clot during revascularization. 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) A patient has throbbing and dull pain. Which nerve fibers are involved? Myelinated nerve fibers A Unmyelinated nerve fibers C Myelinated nerve fibers B Unmyelinated nerve fibers A Unmyelinated nerve fibers C are responsible for dull, throbbing pain. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) What is the narrowest part of the root canal? Apical constriction Middle third Anatomic apex Radiographic apex The apical constriction is the narrowest part of the root canal. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) A patient with a sinus tract and pain on tooth 26 after percussion. What is the next step? PA Sinus tract tracing EPT Extraction Sinus tract tracing helps identify the source of infection. 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) A tooth has two broken files beyond the apex. What is the prognosis? Fair Good Poor Questionable Broken files beyond the apex have a poor prognosis. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) An X-ray of tooth #7 shows radiopacity attached to the palatal root. What is the treatment? Observation RCT Apical surgery Extraction Observation is recommended for asymptomatic radiopacities. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) Which factor indicates a high risk of caries? Using miswak Fluorosis Good oral hygiene Open contact Open contacts trap food and bacteria, increasing the risk of caries. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) A resin composite restoration has 1 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Calcium hydroxide liner RMGIC base Both No liner Using both calcium hydroxide and RMGIC provides pulp protection and a stable base. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) Why is flowable composite preferred over packable composite in preventive resin restorations? Low filler content Higher strength Better aesthetics Less microleakage Flowable composite reduces microleakage due to its ability to adapt to cavity walls. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) How should carbide burs be evaluated for survival and effectiveness? Low speed before tooth contact High speed out of oral cavity High speed before tooth contact Low speed out of oral cavity Testing burs at high speed before tooth contact ensures their effectiveness and longevity. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) A patient has proximal white spots but no radiographic evidence of caries. What is the best treatment? No treatment Composite restoration GIC restoration Fluoridation Fluoridation helps remineralize enamel and prevent further decay. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) A patient with a short root and periapical radiolucency needs isolation for #25. What is the best method? Cotton roll Clamp #26 and extend dam to #24 No need Extract and implant Instead of clamping tooth #25, which has a short root and may be fragile, the clamp is placed on tooth #26 (maxillary first molar) for better stability. The rubber dam is then extended to tooth #24, ensuring proper isolation during the procedure. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) What is the fourth dental material category besides polymers, metals, and porcelain? Stone Alginate Composite Cement Composite is a distinct category of dental materials, combining resin and filler particles. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) A patient has white spots after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best treatment? Fluoride gel Restoration Reinforce oral hygiene Fluoride varnish Reinforcing oral hygiene helps remineralize the enamel and prevent further decalcification. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) In a deep cavity, where should decay removal begin to preserve pulp health? Axial wall first Enamel first Dentin first Floor first Starting with the axial wall reduces the risk of pulp exposure and preserves pulp health. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) What does chronic gagging primarily cause? Erosion Attrition Abfraction Abrasion Chronic gagging can lead to erosion due to stomach acid exposure. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) A 62-year-old patient has posterior recession and arrested root caries. What is the best treatment? Composite restoration Systemic fluoride Topical fluoride GIC restoration GIC restoration is ideal for arrested root caries due to its adhesion and fluoride release. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) What type of retention is achieved with a stock tray and irreversible hydrocolloid? Micro-mechanical Chemical No retention Mechanical Mechanical retention is achieved through the tray's design and the material's properties. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) How many embrasures are there between two adjacent teeth? 4 2 3 1 There are two embrasures between adjacent teeth: one facial and one lingual. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) What causes hydrogen gas formation when PVS impressions are poured immediately? Chemical reaction Improper mixing Moisture contamination Air trapping Hydrogen gas forms due to a chemical reaction between the PVS material and moisture. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) What is the dentist's position when working on the buccal of quadrant 1 and palate of quadrant 2? 6 o'clock 11-12 o'clock 9 o'clock 8 o'clock The 9 o'clock position provides optimal access to both the buccal and palatal surfaces. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) What is the cervico-occlusal length of a molar? 8.5 mm 7.5 mm 9.5 mm 10.5 mm The cervico-occlusal length of a molar is typically around 7.5 mm. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) What is atraumatic restorative treatment (ART)? Surgical intervention No treatment Conservative treatment Microabrasion ART focuses on minimally invasive techniques to remove caries and restore teeth. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) What causes gypsum to break during flasking? Improper mixing Shrinkage Exothermic reaction Insufficient bulk Insufficient bulk of gypsum material leads to weak areas that can break during flasking. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) A class I amalgam restoration on a lower molar has a fractured cusp. What is the likely cause? Under-contoured restoration Undermined tooth structure Over-contoured restoration High point contact Undermined tooth structure due to caries or improper preparation can lead to cusp fracture. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) An older patient presents with thickening around the apex of a tooth. What is the cause? Physiologic remodeling Infection Trauma Cementum deposition Continuous cementum deposition throughout life can cause thickening around the apex. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Calcium hydroxide Zinc oxide RMGIC GIC Calcium hydroxide is ideal for deep class V restorations to protect the pulp. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) Which cement requires slow mixing? Zinc polycarboxylate Zinc phosphate GIC Resin Zinc phosphate requires slow mixing to control the exothermic reaction and achieve proper consistency. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) A crown has a space between the tooth and margin. What can this cause? Crown fracture All of the above Prone to caries Dissolution of cement A space between the crown and tooth can trap debris, leading to caries. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) How can stone setting be accelerated without compromising quality? Hot tap water Increase powder/liquid ratio Slurry water Reduce mixing time Hot tap water accelerates the setting reaction of stone without affecting its properties. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) A patient wants to replace an amalgam restoration with 2 mm of remaining dentin. What liner should be used? RMGIC GIC Calcium hydroxide No liner With 2 mm of remaining dentin, no liner is necessary as the dentin provides sufficient protection. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) A 52-year-old patient has a deep stained groove in tooth #36 with no softness. What is the best treatment? Class I composite No treatment Fissure sealant PRR If there is no softness or caries, no treatment is necessary. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) A pediatric patient swallows a clamp. How can this be prevented in the future? Use a smaller clamp Avoid using clamps Use a rubber dam Use dental floss Dental floss tied to the clamp prevents it from being swallowed or aspirated. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) Why is GIC preferred over composite in some cases? Fluoride release Lower cost Better thermal expansion Higher strength GIC releases fluoride, providing anticariogenic benefits. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) A patient experiences severe pain after an inlay placement. What is the likely cause? Pulpitis Periodontal involvement High occlusion All of the above High occlusion causes pain due to excessive pressure on the restoration. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) What is the definition of resilience? Brittleness Resistance to fracture Ability to absorb energy Hardness Resilience refers to a material's ability to absorb energy without permanent deformation. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best action? Emphasize oral hygiene instructions Fluoride gel Fluoride varnish Restoration Emphasizing oral hygiene helps prevent further decalcification and improves overall dental health. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) Why is polyacrylate cement preferred over zinc phosphate? Strength Cost-effectiveness Ease of use Biocompatibility Polyacrylate is more biocompatible and less irritating to the pulp compared to zinc phosphate. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) What can impinging clamp pressure on tissue cause? Infection Swelling Bleeding Recession Excessive clamp pressure can lead to gingival recession over time. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) What causes hyperplasia on incisor tips and occlusal surfaces of molars? Fluorosis Trauma Tetracycline Metallic Fluorosis can cause enamel hyperplasia, leading to irregularities on tooth surfaces. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) A veneer falls off, and all cement remains on the veneer surface. What is the cause? Inadequate etching Dentine substrate Porcelain contamination Old cement If the cement remains on the veneer, the issue is likely poor adhesion to the dentine substrate. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) A dentist uses latex gloves with polysulfide impression material, but the impression doesn’t set. Why? Wrong paste proportion Sulfur contamination Insufficient mixing time Temperature issues Sulfur in latex gloves can inhibit the setting of polysulfide impression material. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) A patient experiences pain when clenching after a class I amalgam restoration. What is the likely cause? Over-contoured restoration Under-contoured restoration Galvanic reaction High point contact High point contact causes pain during clenching due to excessive occlusal pressure. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) What does chronic fluoride exposure primarily affect? None Skeletal structures Both Dental structures Chronic fluoride exposure primarily affects dental structures, causing fluorosis. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) Why is a cool glass slab recommended for mixing zinc oxide? Shorten setting time Improve consistency Reduce exothermic reaction Increase solubility A cool glass slab slows the setting reaction, allowing more working time. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) What is the most important step when replacing amalgam restorations in a patient with a deep overbite? Occlusal assessment Impression technique Material choice Marginal adaptation Occlusal assessment ensures the new restoration fits properly and avoids high points. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) What type of dentin forms when odontoblasts are disrupted by strong caries? Reparative dentin Primary dentin Tertiary reactionary dentin Secondary dentin Reparative dentin forms in response to strong caries to protect the pulp. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) What happens during syneresis and imbibition of alginate? Loss of water (syneresis) Absorption of water (imbibition) Expansion Shrinkage Syneresis is the loss of water, while imbibition is the absorption of water, affecting alginate stability. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) A deep carious lesion is indicated for extraction. Which of the following criteria helps in choosing the type of extraction? Percussion 3 site caries Gingival swelling in buccal Pulpal pain The extent of caries (3 site caries) is a critical factor in deciding the extraction method. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) How does GIC compare to composite in terms of thermal expansion? Poor coefficient of expansion Excellent coefficient of expansion Similar to dentin Similar to enamel GIC has a thermal expansion coefficient closer to tooth structure, reducing microleakage. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) A patient with bruxism has a fractured amalgam. What is the best treatment option? No treatment Composite Ceramic inlay Cast restoration Cast restoration provides durability and strength, which is ideal for patients with bruxism. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Calcium hydroxide GIC Zinc oxide RMGIC GIC provides a protective barrier and adhesion for deep class V restorations. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) What is a primary component of titanium alloy? Gold Palladium Aluminum Silver Aluminum is a key component of titanium alloys, enhancing their strength and corrosion resistance. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) A broken tooth cannot accommodate a rubber dam. What is the best alternative? Use a clamp Place on adjacent teeth Cotton roll isolation No isolation Placing the rubber dam on adjacent teeth ensures proper isolation for the broken tooth. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) What are the features of active caries? None Discolored and pitted Matte, soft, and chalky Shiny, hard, and smooth Active caries appear matte, soft, and chalky due to enamel demineralization. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) What is the characteristic setting reaction of PVS? Polymerization Cross-linking Addition Condensation PVS sets through an addition reaction, which is more stable and predictable. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) What is the best restoration after conservative access opening on tooth #11? Amalgam restoration No restoration Crown Composite restoration Composite is ideal for conservative restorations due to its aesthetic and adhesive properties. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) What happens when filler content in a restoration is increased? Increased shrinkage Increased hydrophilicity Increased wear resistance Decreased strength Higher filler content improves wear resistance and durability of the restoration. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) What is the dentist's position when working on teeth #41 and #31? 9 o'clock 7 o'clock 12 o'clock 11 o'clock The 12 o'clock position provides optimal access to the mandibular anterior teeth. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) A patient experiences severe pain during in-office bleaching. What is the likely cause? Gingival bleaching Tooth sensitivity Light intensity High pH of bleaching agent Incorrect placement of the rubber dam can cause gingival irritation and pain during bleaching. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) Tooth #16 has a grade IV furcation. How should it be managed? Odontoplasty Hemisection No treatment Resection of root Resection of the root is the most appropriate treatment for severe furcation involvement. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) Which instrument is used to finish the buccal and lingual proximal walls? Enamel hatchet Gingival margin trimmer Excavator Chisel An enamel hatchet is designed for precise finishing of proximal walls. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) What is the definition of a thixotropic material? A solid that becomes liquid under pressure A material that expands with heat A material that contracts with heat A liquid that becomes less viscous under pressure Thixotropic materials become less viscous and more fluid under repeated pressure. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) Why does a pin in an amalgam restoration fracture? Incorrect pin placement Excessive force All of the above Poor material quality Pin fracture can result from multiple factors, including placement, force, and material quality. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) A patient experiences pain during tooth preparation, even on the enamel layer. What is the likely cause? Rods Enamel spindle Enamel lamellae Enamel tufts Enamel spindles are extensions of odontoblasts into the enamel, which can cause sensitivity. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) What is the best dentist position for treating teeth #41 and #31? 9 o'clock 12 o'clock 11 o'clock 7 o'clock The 12 o'clock position provides optimal access to the mandibular anterior teeth. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) A patient complains of discolored tooth #12. What is the best treatment? Internal bleaching Veneer Composite Crown A veneer is the best option for addressing discoloration while preserving tooth structure. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) A patient has a class IV fracture on the mesial side of an anterior tooth involving the contact area. Where should the contact be placed? Middle third Whole mesial contact surface Gingival third Incisal third Placing the contact in the incisal third restores function and esthetics effectively. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) A patient is missing teeth #14-17, #34-37, #44, and #47. How to record occlusion? Face bow maxillary and occlusal rim in CR Arbitrarily and occlusal rim in MIP Arbitrarily and occlusal rim in CR Face bow maxillary and occlusal rim in MIP Using a face bow and occlusal rim in centric relation (CR) ensures accurate occlusion recording. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) Which restoration has the most glass substrate? Leucite-reinforced ceramic Lithium disilicate Feldspathic Zirconia Feldspathic porcelain has the highest glass content, making it highly esthetic. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) A patient returns two weeks after a metal post-threaded crown fell out. What is the best approach? Remake everything Remove the post and fit a new post Extract the tooth Reattach the crown Reattaching the crown is the first step if the post and crown are still viable. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) A patient complains of food accumulation in the cervical third of a newly placed crown. What could be the cause? Fractured connector Crown emergence profile Poor marginal fit Open contact An improper crown emergence profile can lead to food accumulation in the cervical area. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) A patient complains of a metallic taste and pain after cementing a cast post and crown. What is the cause? Poor cementation Mobile crown Eccentric occlusal interference Vertical root fracture A mobile crown can cause pain and a metallic taste due to movement and irritation. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) An ovate pontic causes tissue irritation. What material is most likely the cause? Porcelain Nickel chromium Gold Resin Nickel chromium can cause tissue irritation due to its rigidity and potential for allergic reactions. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) A patient had a provisional crown for 2 weeks, and bleeding persists during final impression. What to do? RC + ferric sulfate with polyether impression RC + Epinephrine and PVS impression Extract the tooth Adjust (or remake) the provisional and take it after 2 weeks Adjusting or remaking the provisional crown allows the tissue to heal before taking the final impression. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) A patient has a conservative access cavity on #36 with an MO amalgam restoration after RCT. What is the best restoration? Cast post and ceramic crown Composite core and ceramic crown Cast post and PFM Amalgam core A cast post and PFM crown provide the necessary strength and support for the tooth. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) A picture shows a PFM crown on an upper tooth and a natural lower tooth. What type of interference is present? Non-working Centric Protrusive Working Non-working interference occurs when the upper and lower teeth do not align properly during function. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) A patient wants to extract a lateral incisor. What is the temporary FPD pontic design? Sanitary Conical/bullet Ovate Modified ridge lap An ovate pontic is the most aesthetic choice for a temporary FPD replacing a lateral incisor. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) A young patient has eccentric interference but normal centric relation. What should be adjusted? Buccal of lower Reduce lower incisal edge Reduce upper incisal edge Buccal of upper Reducing the upper incisal edge can eliminate eccentric interference. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) During impression for a PFM crown, there is a void in the facial surface margin. What should be done? Remake impression Use a different impression material Proceed with the impression Fill the void with wax A void in the impression margin requires remaking the impression for accuracy. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) After tooth preparation, a putty index is applied to a wax-up cast, and a temporary is made intraorally. What is this technique called? Indirect None of the above Indirect-direct Direct Direct temporization involves creating the temporary restoration directly in the patient’s mouth. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) A patient complains of bad taste and smell after a 3-unit FPD. Bubbles appear in the cervical region of a retainer. What is the cause? Open margins of the retainer Connector fracture Loosening of the retainer Food debris beneath the pontic Loosening of the retainer can cause bubbles and lead to bad taste and smell. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) A patient’s crown fell three times after cementation. What is the best management? Extract the tooth Do endo and post & core Re-cement the crown Use different cement Endodontic treatment followed by a post and core provides better retention for the crown. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) A patient has pain one week after cementing a new crown. What is the management? DPC RCT Desensitizing agent Remove crown Removing the crown allows for assessment and management of the underlying cause of pain. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) While doing a post preparation, sudden bleeding occurs. What is the first step? Take PA Stop the procedure Apply pressure Use hemostatic agent A periapical (PA) radiograph is essential to assess the cause of bleeding and guide further management. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) A patient with destroyed lower posterior teeth and missing premolars needs full-mouth rehabilitation. How should occlusion be established? Centric relation Bilateral occlusion Anterior jaw relation Maximum intercuspation Centric relation ensures stable and functional occlusion for full-mouth rehabilitation. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) A middle-aged patient with complete dentures complains of difficulty eating. What is the best solution? Replace dentures Do implant overdenture Adjust dentures Reline dentures Implant overdentures provide better stability and function for patients with difficulty eating. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) A patient is missing teeth #38, #37, #36, and #35. Where should the indirect retainer be placed? None of the above Horseshoe major connector Direct retainer on #43 Indirect retainer on #43 An indirect retainer on #43 provides stability for the RPD in this case. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) What is the mandibular limit of the distal extension of lingual flanges? None of the above Superior pharyngeal constrictor Mylohyoid Genioglossus The superior pharyngeal constrictor limits the distal extension of lingual flanges. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) What bur is used to prepare a V-shaped cingulum rest on tooth #13? Inverted cone bur Tapered bur Fissure bur Round bur An inverted cone bur is used to prepare a V-shaped cingulum rest. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) A patient with Kennedy Class I RPD has unstable rest seats. What should be done? Rebase the denture Reline the denture Change the position of rest seats Change the denture Changing the position of rest seats ensures stability for the RPD. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) What muscle limits mandibular lingual border molding? Mylohyoid Genioglossus Superior constrictor None of the above The genioglossus muscle limits mandibular lingual border molding. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) What is the best occlusal scheme for complete dentures that provides aesthetics? Lingualized occlusion Bilateral balanced occlusion Monoplane occlusion None of the above Lingualized occlusion provides both function and aesthetics. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) What causes papillary hyperplasia under a denture? Poor fit Continuous wearing and poor cleaning Occlusal issue None of the above Continuous wearing and poor cleaning can cause papillary hyperplasia. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) How to minimize trauma from a half-pear major connector? None of the above Distribute occlusal forces Adjust the connector Use wax Distributing occlusal forces minimizes trauma from a half-pear major connector. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) How to manage a fractured RPI clasp? Replace the clasp Recasting No action needed Wrought wire Using wrought wire is a conservative way to fix a fractured RPI clasp. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) What is a complication of an Aker clasp? Mobility Poor retention Fracture Recession An Aker clasp can cause mobility in the abutment tooth over time. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) A patient pronounces "S" as "Th" with a complete denture. What is the problem? Poor occlusal balance Reduced vertical dimension None of the above Upper incisors set too far palatally Upper incisors placed too palatally can affect speech. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) A picture shows a ball attachment with one straight and one tilted implant. Why is the overdenture unstable? None of the above Implants are not parallel Poor fit Distortion of the rubber Non-parallel implants can cause instability in overdentures. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) A patient with an immediate denture returns after 4 weeks with tissue overgrowth. What is the diagnosis? Papillary hyperplasia Denture stomatitis None of the above Epulis fissuratum Epulis fissuratum is a common tissue overgrowth caused by ill-fitting dentures. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) How many days does it take for a traumatic ulcer under a complete denture to appear? 7-8 days 1-2 days 5-6 days 3-4 days Traumatic ulcers can appear within 1-2 days due to pressure from the denture. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) A child has Class II malocclusion and mandibular hyperdivergence. What is the best treatment? Facemask Functional appliance High-pull headgear No treatment High-pull headgear is effective for managing hyperdivergent Class II cases. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) An 11-year-old patient has Class II skeletal malocclusion due to a retruded mandible. What is the best appliance? Fixed orthodontic appliance Facemask Headgear Functional appliance Functional appliances are effective for enhancing mandibular growth. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) A 14-year-old patient has a diastema and low frenal attachment. What should be examined before starting orthodontic treatment? Panoramic X-ray Cephalometric analysis Study models Blanching of the incisive papilla Blanching of the incisive papilla indicates frenal attachment interference. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) A pediatric patient has a thumb-sucking habit. What is the best appliance to use? Hass appliance W arch Palatal crib Quad helix A palatal crib is effective for breaking thumb-sucking habits. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) What is the best appliance to retain crossbite correction? Essex retainer No retention needed Quad helix Hawley retainer A Hawley retainer is commonly used to retain crossbite correction. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) What is the most important factor for using a functional appliance? Skeletal age Patient compliance Dental development Treatment duration Skeletal age is the most critical factor for functional appliance success. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) A patient has a retained primary canine with good prognosis and an impacted permanent canine with poor prognosis. What is the best treatment? Extract the primary canine and close space Leave the primary canine Extract the primary canine and place an implant Crown the primary canine If the primary canine has a good prognosis, it should be left in place. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) At what age should the first orthodontic screening occur? 10 years 15 years 7 years 12 years The American Association of Orthodontists recommends screening by age 7. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A patient complains of a deep bite and excessive vertical growth of the maxilla. What is the most likely diagnosis? Normal growth Skeletal Class II Skeletal Class III Vertical excess of the maxilla Skeletal Class II is characterized by excessive vertical growth of the maxilla. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) A patient has a unilateral crossbite due to a functional shift of the mandible. What is the best treatment? Treatment of unilateral crossbite on the non-affected side Treatment of unilateral crossbite on the affected side No treatment Bilateral maxillary expansion Bilateral maxillary expansion is the most effective treatment for functional shifts. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) A girl has neck scratches and petechiae on the palate. What is the most likely cause? Neglect Physical abuse Emotional abuse Sexual abuse These signs are often associated with sexual abuse. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) A pediatric patient has an ankylosed primary molar and a missing permanent successor. What is the best management? Extract the primary molar Wait for natural exfoliation No treatment Refer to a specialist Ankylosed primary molars with missing successors require specialist intervention. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) After placing PRR and pit and fissure sealants, when should the patient return for follow-up? 2 years 6 months 12 months 3 months A 3-month follow-up is recommended for preventive care. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) What is the most critical consideration for a child with premature loss of a primary second molar? Orthodontic treatment Extraction No treatment Space maintenance Space maintenance is essential to prevent crowding. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) A 12-year-old patient has an ankylosed primary molar with no successor. What is the best management? Extract the tooth Refer to a pediatric dentist No treatment Wait until age 18 Specialist referral is necessary for ankylosed teeth with no successors. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) A 10-year-old patient has superficial caries in all first permanent molars. What is the best management? Preventive resin restoration Extraction No treatment Acid fissure sealant Preventive resin restorations are ideal for non-cavitated caries. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) How does the crown of a primary tooth differ from a permanent tooth? More bulbous Converge apically Smaller overall Wider mesiodistally Primary tooth crowns are more bulbous compared to permanent teeth. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) A child has petechiae on the hard palate. What is the most likely cause? Emotional abuse Sexual abuse Physical abuse Neglect Petechiae on the palate can indicate sexual abuse. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) A 2-year-old caries-free child uses a bottle at night. What fluoride regimen is recommended? Pea size non-fluoridated toothpaste Pea size fluoridated toothpaste Smear size fluoridated toothpaste Smear size non-fluoridated toothpaste A smear of fluoridated toothpaste is recommended for young children. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A 9-year-old patient has fully erupted tooth #21 but missing/delayed eruption of #11. What is the cause? Fibrous tissue Congenitally missing Delayed eruption Trauma Fibrous tissue can impede tooth eruption. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) What happens to GCF during inflammation? Increases Disappears No change Decreases GCF increases during inflammation due to increased vascular permeability. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) A 66-year-old patient has a necrotic #12 with bone loss to the mid-root. What is the cause? Dens invaginatus Periodontal defect Trauma Caries A periodontal defect is the likely cause of bone loss and necrosis. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) A 56-year-old patient with missing teeth and generalized horizontal bone loss needs implants. What is the treatment plan? Request periapical radiographs and proceed Request CBCT and proceed Request OPG and proceed Scaling, root planning, and re-evaluation Scaling, root planning, and re-evaluation are necessary before implants. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) What is ridge mapping used for? Assessing periodontal pockets Measuring bone density Determining ridge height and width Evaluating tooth mobility Ridge mapping is used to determine the height and width of the alveolar ridge. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) A 23-year-old with a family history of severe periodontitis is diagnosed with stage III, grade C periodontitis. What is the initial treatment? Extraction Scaling and antibiotics Scaling and follow-up Clearance and prosthetic treatment Scaling combined with antibiotics (amoxicillin + metronidazole) is the initial treatment for aggressive periodontitis. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) A patient has 4 mm recession and 3 mm pocket depth. What does this indicate? 4 mm attachment loss 2 mm pocket depth 7 mm attachment loss 7 mm pseudo pocket The total attachment loss is the sum of recession and pocket depth (4 + 3 = 7 mm). 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) A patient has food impaction under a contact area. What is the best way to clean this area? Dental floss Dental brush Super floss Interdental brush Super floss is effective for cleaning under contact areas and bridges. 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) Which drug causes gingival hyperplasia? Beta-blocker NSAIDs Antibiotics Calcium channel blocker Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are known to cause gingival hyperplasia. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) What is the distance between calculus and bone? 2.97 mm 1.97 mm 3.97 mm 4.97 mm The distance between calculus and bone is typically 1.97 mm. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) A patient with anterior crowns presents with spacing and trauma from occlusion. What type of trauma is this? Combined Persistent Primary Secondary Primary occlusal trauma occurs due to excessive forces on a healthy periodontium. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) A patient has a 5 mm probing depth on a lower canine, no inflammation, and 4 mm attached gingiva. What is the diagnosis? Periodontitis Healthy periodontium Deficient attached gingiva Gingival overgrowth (fibrotic) Gingival overgrowth (fibrotic type) is likely in the absence of inflammation. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) A 42-year-old patient has sudden mobility of upper central incisors with erythematous gingival margins. What is the diagnosis? Gingivitis Necrotizing gingivitis Periodontitis Pathological migration Pathological migration is the likely cause of sudden tooth mobility. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) Why is rinsing performed before crown lengthening? Reduce bleeding Prevent infection Reduce aerosol Improve visibility Rinsing reduces aerosol production during crown lengthening procedures. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) Which instrument is used to check root surface smoothness after scaling? Explorer Chisel Mirror Hoe An explorer is used to detect roughness on root surfaces after scaling. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) A patient has recession of 1 mm on #43 and 2 mm on #44. What is the class of recession? Class 2 Class 1 Class 3 Class 4 Class 1 recession does not extend to the mucogingival junction. 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) A tooth has 1.5 mm mobility. What is the Miller classification? Class IV Class I Class II Class III Class II mobility involves 1-2 mm of horizontal displacement. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) A patient has yellowish soft deposits on teeth that cannot be removed with water spray. What is this? Calculus Material alba Pellicle Plaque Plaque is a soft deposit that adheres to teeth and cannot be easily removed with water. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) A patient has a periodontal abscess with pus discharge. What is the treatment? Extraction Incision and drainage Observe RCT Incision and drainage are necessary to manage a periodontal abscess with pus. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) What happens to gingival thickness with increasing age? Increase gingival thickness Decrease attached gingiva Increase attached gingiva Decrease gingival thickness With age, attached gingiva tends to increase due to changes in tissue structure. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) A patient has 5 mm recession and non-keratinized tissue. What is the treatment? Gingivectomy Root coverage Observation Flap surgery Root coverage is used to treat recession and improve aesthetics. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) What is the standard treatment for missing lower teeth? Overdenture with 4 implants Overdenture with 2 implants Complete denture FPD An overdenture with 4 implants provides better stability. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) What is the recall interval after the first year for a stable implant? 5-6 months 3-4 months 7-8 months 1-2 months 5-6 months is the recommended recall interval after the first year. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What causes numbness after implant placement? Neurovascular bundle interference Loose screw Poor hygiene Excess cement Neurovascular bundle interference can cause numbness. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) What is the complication of screw-retained implants for multiple units? Interocclusal space Excess cement Difficult to retrieve Lack of passivity Lack of passivity is a common complication in screw-retained implants. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) What is the diagnosis for an implant with pocket and resorption? Mucositis Periimplantitis Bone loss Implant failure Periimplantitis is characterized by pocket formation and bone resorption. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) What is the cause of 5 mm probing with bleeding around an implant? Poor contour Poor occlusion Loose screw Excess cement A loose screw can cause probing depth and bleeding. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) What is the implant width for a missing 36 with 8 mm MD interocclusal? 6 mm 7 mm 5 mm 8 mm A 5 mm implant width is suitable for an 8 mm interocclusal space. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) What causes loosening of an implant crown screw? Poor hygiene Undesirable lateral excursion Excess cement Centered occlusal contact Undesirable lateral excursions can cause screw loosening. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) What is the management for severe bone loss around an implant? Replace crown Remove cement Remove implant Scaling and debridement Severe bone loss requires implant removal. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) What is the cause of recession around an implant-retained crown? Loose screw Poor occlusion Poor hygiene Remaining cement Remaining cement can cause inflammation and recession. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) What is the treatment for a mobile distal implant? Vertical bone graft Functional load Bone augmentation Remove distal implant Removing the mobile implant is the best approach. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) What causes a black line around an implant in the upper lateral? Labial position Excess cement Shadow of titanium abutment Poor hygiene The shadow of the titanium abutment can cause a dark line. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) What is the minimum age for a dental implant? 21 16 18 20 18 is the minimum age for dental implants due to jaw development. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) How long does osteointegration take for an implant in tooth #16? 4 months 7 months 6 months 5 months Osteointegration typically takes 6 months for upper molars. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) What is the diagnosis for recession and probing depth around an implant? Mucositis Peri-implantitis Mucosal recession Bone loss Mucosal recession is characterized by recession and probing depth. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) An assistant discusses a patient’s smile with colleagues. What did they violate? Non-maleficence Confidentiality Privacy Autonomy Discussing patient details violates privacy. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) A husband wants extraction for his wife due to cost. What should the doctor do? Refuse treatment Proceed with extraction Do nothing Explain treatment options to the wife The wife should be informed and provide consent. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) Gloves tear during surgery. What should the doctor do? Wash with water Change gloves Wash with soap and water Use alcohol hand rub Washing with soap and water is essential. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) When should scrubbing be initiated? Before and after every patient Do nothing Before implant surgery After touching unsterilized instruments Scrubbing is essential before implant surgery. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) An impression sent to the lab has blood on it. What virus could spread? HBV HIV HPV HCV HBV is highly transmissible through blood. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) What is the time and temperature for dry heat sterilization? 120°F for 30 minutes 250°F for 60 minutes 320°F for 120 minutes 150°F for 90 minutes Dry heat sterilization requires 320°F for 120 minutes. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) After a needle stick injury, what is the next step after wound care? Ask the patient for blood tests Do nothing Report the incident Continue treatment Reporting the incident is necessary for follow-up. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) A patient with anxiety disorder and tooth wear needs management. What should you do? Proceed with treatment Refer for advanced restoration and psychology Do nothing Refuse treatment Comprehensive care includes psychological support. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) A doctor doesn’t inform staff about a COVID patient. What did they violate? Infection control Colleagues Autonomy Community Failing to inform staff violates community safety. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) A VIP patient is referred by a supervisor. What should you do? Give them priority Do nothing Refuse treatment Treat them like others Treating VIPs like others maintains fairness. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) A vaccinated dentist gets a needle stick injury from an HBV-positive patient. What should they do? Nothing Get an antibodies vaccine Get anti-immune and antibodies Get anti-immune treatment No action is needed if vaccinated. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) What does a black indicator in sterilization mean? Repeat the cycle It shows correct time Sterilization killed all spores Correct time and temperature A black indicator confirms successful sterilization. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) A 17-year-old patient comes to the ER complaining of a wire irritating the buccal mucosa. The dentist plans to cut the wire. What equipment should he wear? No special equipment needed Gloves only Mask only Eye protection goggles Eye protection is essential to prevent injury. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) You break a file during a procedure and bypass it. What is the best management? Continue without informing Do nothing Refer to another dentist Disclose to the patient Transparency is required for patient trust. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) What should you do with a COVID patient? Refuse treatment Proceed with treatment Do nothing Defer elective treatment Elective treatment should be deferred for COVID patients. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) What is the minimum time for autoclaving at 132°C? 2 minutes 4 minutes 1 minute 3 minutes Autoclaving requires at least 4 minutes at 132°C. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) A file separates during instrumentation but is bypassed. What type of error is this? Near miss Miss Extreme miss System failure Bypassing a separated file is a near miss. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) A patient’s family disagrees with a hopeless diagnosis. What should the nurse do? Do not call the team Take the case to court Call the team Follow the NRO The team should be called for further evaluation. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) How long should handwashing take? 1 minute 2 minutes 40-60 seconds 20-30 seconds Handwashing should last 40-60 seconds. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) A patient is referred for third molar extraction, but you find resorption in tooth 7. What should you do? Refer the patient until you inform their doctor Proceed with extraction Tell the patient only Do nothing The patient should be informed of findings. Your score is The average score is 40% Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Please rate this exam and leave a comment with any notes or suggestions. Anonymous feedback Thank you for your feedback Send feedback
