SDLE MCQ SDLE Mock Test Facebook X LinkedIn Messenger Messenger WhatsApp Telegram Print Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 0% You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start Mock Test SDLE Mock Test DentQuiz SDLE Mock Exam Instruction You will have 3 hours to complete it once you start. For the best experience, use a computer and switch to full screen button (from the top left corner). Explanations will appear after each question to help you understand the correct answer. Your results will be shown right after you finish the exam. The source of the questions and answers is recent Rafee’ Al-Maqam files. Special thanks to رفيع المقام. Answers are based on colleagues best efforts and may not be 100% accurate. If you believe an answer is incorrect, please click the Report button to let us know. Blueprint Endodontics : 15% Restorative : 30% Prosthodontics : 17.5% Orthodontics and Pedodontics : 10% Periodontics and Implant : 17.5% Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety : 10% Please fill in your details to continue NameEmailPhone Number 1 / 200 Category: Endodontics 1) What type of splint is used for intruded teeth? No splint Flexible splint Rigid splint Semi-rigid splint Flexible splints allow for physiological movement. 2 / 200 Category: Endodontics 2) A necrotic tooth without swelling requires what treatment? Extraction Follow up Start endo Antibiotics Necrotic teeth without swelling should be treated with RCT. 3 / 200 Category: Endodontics 3) A 13-year-old with an avulsed tooth kept in milk. What is the best management? Splint it directly Keep it in milk Reimplant immediately Extraoral RCT Milk is a suitable medium for preserving the tooth before reimplantation. 4 / 200 Category: Endodontics 4) Pain increases with hot food and decreases with cold. What is the likely diagnosis? Reversible pulpitis Necrosis Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis Periodontitis This is a classic symptom of irreversible pulpitis. 5 / 200 Category: Endodontics 5) What does bleeding during pulpotomy indicate? Irreversible pulpitis Necrosis Normal Reversible pulpitis Bleeding during pulpotomy often indicates irreversible pulpitis. 6 / 200 Category: Endodontics 6) What is the narrowest part of the root canal? Anatomic apex Apical constriction Middle third Radiographic apex The apical constriction is the narrowest part of the root canal. 7 / 200 Category: Endodontics 7) How many canals are typically found in a first premolar? 4 2 3 1 First premolars usually have 2 canals. 8 / 200 Category: Endodontics 8) What is the best treatment for a 9-year-old with 3-4mm intrusion? Ortho reposition Follow-up RCT Extraction Follow-up is often sufficient for minor intrusions in children. 9 / 200 Category: Endodontics 9) What is the treatment for pulp exposure after 3 days? Cervical pulpotomy RCT Partial pulpotomy with MTA Pulpotomy RCT is the best option for pulp exposure after 3 days. 10 / 200 Category: Endodontics 10) What type of X-ray is best for an avulsed tooth? Bitewing OPG CBCT and 2 PA Occlusal CBCT and periapical X-rays provide detailed information. 11 / 200 Category: Endodontics 11) A pediatric patient with a discolored gray crown after trauma. What is the management? Follow-up Extraction Pulpotomy RCT Follow-up is recommended if the discoloration is improving. 12 / 200 Category: Endodontics 12) A premolar with deep caries and no response to tests. What is the next step? Take EPT test Remove caries and reassess Extraction RCT Removing caries and reassessing is the next step. 13 / 200 Category: Endodontics 13) How long should an avulsed tooth be splinted if extraoral time is 45 minutes? 6 weeks 4 weeks 2-3 weeks functional splint 8 weeks rigid splint A functional splint for 2-3 weeks is recommended. 14 / 200 Category: Endodontics 14) What is the best method to refine access for a C-shaped canal? #2 round bur 169 L bur Ultrasonic #1 round bur Ultrasonic tips are precise for refining complex canal anatomy. 15 / 200 Category: Endodontics 15) What is the best obturation technique? Carries Single cone Cold lateral condensation Warm lateral condensation Warm lateral condensation provides a better seal. 16 / 200 Category: Endodontics 16) What is the main disadvantage of silver points? Difficult removal Toxicity Corrosion Inadequate seal Silver points often fail to provide an adequate seal. 17 / 200 Category: Endodontics 17) A sound tooth has pain on percussion and no response to cold test. What is the diagnosis? Periodontal combined Perio primary with endo secondary True combined Endo primary with perio secondary Pain on percussion and no cold response suggest periodontal issues. 18 / 200 Category: Endodontics 18) During Class I cavity preparation, a perforation occurs. Bleeding stops. What is the next step? ZOE + Amalgam CaOH + RMGIC DPC + GIC + Composite Follow-up Immediate sealing with DPC and restoration is recommended. 19 / 200 Category: Endodontics 19) During instrumentation, a calcified canal suddenly disappears. What is the cause? Ledge Calcification Bifurcation Perforation Bifurcation can cause the canal to split and disappear. 20 / 200 Category: Endodontics 20) A necrotic immature central incisor with a history of trauma requires which treatment? RCT with MTA RCT Pulpotomy Extraction MTA promotes apexification in immature teeth. 21 / 200 Category: Endodontics 21) What is D9 of a rotary file with size 10 and taper 0.02? 0.28 0.34 0.32 0.3 D9 = 0.10 (size) + (0.02 × 9) = 0.28. 22 / 200 Category: Endodontics 22) A 14-year-old with a complicated crown fracture involving 2/3 of the crown. What is the treatment? DPC RCT Pulpotomy Extraction Pulpotomy is the best option for young patients with vital pulp. 23 / 200 Category: Endodontics 23) What is the management for instruments pushed beyond the apex? Surgical Reattempt retrieval Follow-up Extraction Surgical intervention is often required for instruments beyond the apex. 24 / 200 Category: Endodontics 24) A patient with external root resorption and grade II mobility in tooth #21. What is the treatment? Monitoring RCT Pulpotomy Extraction RCT is the best option for external resorption with mobility. 25 / 200 Category: Endodontics 25) Which avulsion scenario has the poorest prognosis? Avulsion >60 min open apex Avulsion <60 min closed apex Avulsion >60 min closed apex Avulsion <60 min open apex closed apex teeth have a poorer prognosis 26 / 200 Category: Endodontics 26) A patient has an endo-perio lesion with deep pockets. What is the management? Start endo then perio Start endo and follow up Start perio Extraction Endo should be addressed first in endo-perio lesions. 27 / 200 Category: Endodontics 27) A molar with 2 posts and no RCT has no symptoms. What is the management? Re-RCT Extraction Assure the patient Follow-up If asymptomatic, no intervention is needed. 28 / 200 Category: Endodontics 28) What is the primary cause of internal resorption? Infection Trauma Inflammation in coronal pulp Dento alveolar abscess Inflammation in the coronal pulp is the main cause of internal resorption. 29 / 200 Category: Endodontics 29) What happens to the permanent tooth after central intrusion? Hyperplasia of the root Buccally displaced Palatally displaced Devitalization Intrusion often leads to palatal displacement of the permanent tooth. 30 / 200 Category: Endodontics 30) A short RCT is observed with apical calcification. The patient needs a survey crown. What is the next step? Do the crown Re-RCT first Follow-up Extraction If the RCT is stable and asymptomatic, proceed with the crown. 31 / 200 Category: Restorative 1) A patient experiences severe pain after an inlay placement. What is the likely cause? Periodontal involvement All of the above High occlusion Pulpitis High occlusion causes pain due to excessive pressure on the restoration. 32 / 200 Category: Restorative 2) A class V restoration has less than 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What liner should be used? Calcium hydroxide RMGIC Zinc oxide GIC Calcium hydroxide is ideal for deep class V restorations to protect the pulp. 33 / 200 Category: Restorative 3) Which material undergoes an acid-base reaction during setting? RMGI Composite Glass ionomer Componer Glass ionomer sets through an acid-base reaction between the glass powder and polyacid liquid. 34 / 200 Category: Restorative 4) What does chronic fluoride exposure primarily affect? Dental structures Skeletal structures Both None Chronic fluoride exposure primarily affects dental structures, causing fluorosis. 35 / 200 Category: Restorative 5) How should a bevel be placed in a class I preparation without burs? Enamel hatchet Bevel hatchet Excavator Chisel A chisel is used to create a bevel in class I preparations without burs. 36 / 200 Category: Restorative 6) A class I restoration with deep caries has 0.5 mm of remaining dentin thickness. What base should be used? amalgam GIC RMGIC Zinc oxide RMGIC is ideal for deep caries with minimal dentin thickness due to its strength and fluoride release. 37 / 200 Category: Restorative 7) When should polysulfide impressions be poured? 1 hour Immediately 15 minutes 1 week Polysulfide impressions should be poured within 1 hour to ensure accuracy. 38 / 200 Category: Restorative 8) A patient with bruxism has a fractured amalgam. What is the best treatment option? Cast restoration No treatment Composite Ceramic inlay Cast restoration provides durability and strength, which is ideal for patients with bruxism. 39 / 200 Category: Restorative 9) Which restoration type is most prone to polymerization shrinkage? Class I Class IV Class II Class III Class I restorations are most prone to shrinkage due to their large surface area. 40 / 200 Category: Restorative 10) A crown has a space between the tooth and margin. What can this cause? All of the above Prone to caries Crown fracture Dissolution of cement A space between the crown and tooth can trap debris, leading to caries. 41 / 200 Category: Restorative 11) What is the best restoration after conservative access opening on tooth #11? No restoration Crown Composite restoration Amalgam restoration Composite is ideal for conservative restorations due to its aesthetic and adhesive properties. 42 / 200 Category: Restorative 12) What type of retention is achieved with a stock tray and irreversible hydrocolloid? Chemical No retention Mechanical Micro-mechanical Mechanical retention is achieved through the tray's design and the material's properties. 43 / 200 Category: Restorative 13) A patient has an overhanging amalgam restoration with no symptoms. What is the best action? Monitor Restoration Remove overhang No treatment Removing the overhang prevents periodontal issues and improves oral health. 44 / 200 Category: Restorative 14) A 62-year-old patient has posterior recession and arrested root caries. What is the best treatment? Composite restoration GIC restoration Topical fluoride Systemic fluoride GIC restoration is ideal for arrested root caries due to its adhesion and fluoride release. 45 / 200 Category: Restorative 15) A deep class II restoration shows good margins but bone loss in the area. What is affected? Dentin Pulp Periodontium Enamel Bone loss indicates periodontal involvement, likely due to the restoration's proximity to the bone. 46 / 200 Category: Restorative 16) What causes a grainy impression when moisture contaminates the powder? Chalky cast Grainy impression Distorted impression Tear in impression Moisture contamination leads to a grainy texture in the impression material. 47 / 200 Category: Restorative 17) What is the purpose of applying a separating medium? To clean the canal For cement To remove gutta-percha To isolate the tooth A separating medium prevents cement from sticking to unwanted surfaces during restoration. 48 / 200 Category: Restorative 18) An impression left for over 15 minutes before pouring appears chalky and smooth. What is the cause? Dehydration shrinkage Impression expansion Contamination Improper mixing Dehydration causes the impression to shrink and appear chalky. 49 / 200 Category: Restorative 19) A patient with a habit of scratching their gingiva has recession and root caries. What is the first treatment? GIC restoration Composite restoration Periodontal surgery Fluoride application GIC restoration is ideal for root caries due to its adhesion and fluoride release properties. 50 / 200 Category: Restorative 20) A patient has hypercementosis. What is the best management? RCT Follow-up No treatment Extraction Hypercementosis is often asymptomatic and only requires follow-up unless symptomatic. 51 / 200 Category: Restorative 21) What is the definition of a thixotropic material? A material that expands with heat A solid that becomes liquid under pressure A liquid that becomes less viscous under pressure A material that contracts with heat Thixotropic materials become less viscous and more fluid under repeated pressure. 52 / 200 Category: Restorative 22) What happens during syneresis and imbibition of alginate? Absorption of water (imbibition) Expansion Loss of water (syneresis) Shrinkage Syneresis is the loss of water, while imbibition is the absorption of water, affecting alginate stability. 53 / 200 Category: Restorative 23) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the best action? Restoration Fluoride varnish Emphasize oral hygiene instructions Fluoride gel Emphasizing oral hygiene helps prevent further decalcification and improves overall dental health. 54 / 200 Category: Restorative 24) What is atraumatic restorative treatment (ART)? Conservative treatment Surgical intervention No treatment Microabrasion ART focuses on minimally invasive techniques to remove caries and restore teeth. 55 / 200 Category: Restorative 25) During post preparation, bleeding from the canal doesn’t stop. What is the next step? Immediate MTA placement Wait and observe Take a PA radiograph Place a temporary filling A PA radiograph helps assess the extent of the issue and guides further treatment. 56 / 200 Category: Restorative 26) A patient has proximal white spots but no radiographic evidence of caries. What is the best treatment? GIC restoration Fluoridation No treatment Composite restoration Fluoridation helps remineralize enamel and prevent further decay. 57 / 200 Category: Restorative 27) Which type of GIC is used as a luting agent? Type 2 Type 1 Type 4 Type 3 Type 1 GIC is specifically designed for cementation and luting purposes. 58 / 200 Category: Restorative 28) A broken tooth cannot accommodate a rubber dam. What is the best alternative? Cotton roll isolation Use a clamp No isolation Place on adjacent teeth Placing the rubber dam on adjacent teeth ensures proper isolation for the broken tooth. 59 / 200 Category: Restorative 29) A pediatric patient has swelling in the lower lip after extraction. What is the likely cause? Allergic reaction Masticatory trauma Hematoma Infection Masticatory trauma can cause swelling due to irritation of the extraction site. 60 / 200 Category: Restorative 30) What is the most important step when replacing amalgam restorations in a patient with a deep overbite? Material choice Impression technique Marginal adaptation Occlusal assessment Occlusal assessment ensures the new restoration fits properly and avoids high points. 61 / 200 Category: Restorative 31) Why is a cool glass slab recommended for mixing zinc oxide? Improve consistency Shorten setting time Increase solubility Reduce exothermic reaction A cool glass slab slows the setting reaction, allowing more working time. 62 / 200 Category: Restorative 32) What type of collagen is present in the pulp during development? Type 1 Type 4 Type 2 Type 3 Type 3 collagen is the primary collagen type in the pulp during development. 63 / 200 Category: Restorative 33) Why is polyacrylate cement preferred over zinc phosphate? Biocompatibility Cost-effectiveness Ease of use Strength Polyacrylate is more biocompatible and less irritating to the pulp compared to zinc phosphate. 64 / 200 Category: Restorative 34) What material is used for flasking casts? Wax Plaster Die stone Refractory material Die stone is commonly used for flasking due to its strength and accuracy. 65 / 200 Category: Restorative 35) What is the most abundant component of dentin by weight? Water Collagen Inorganic material Organic material Inorganic material (hydroxyapatite) makes up the majority of dentin by weight. 66 / 200 Category: Restorative 36) A patient wants to place a final crown with temporary cement to evaluate sensitivity. Which cement is best? Glass ionomer Resin cement Non-eugenol zinc oxide Zinc phosphate Non-eugenol zinc oxide is ideal for temporary cementation due to its biocompatibility. 67 / 200 Category: Restorative 37) Which impression material is reversible? Alginate Agar Polysulfide PVS Agar is a reversible hydrocolloid, meaning it can transition between gel and sol states. 68 / 200 Category: Restorative 38) How can the working time of zinc oxide be increased? Reduce mixing time Use a faster-setting cement Mix on a cool glass slab Increase powder/liquid ratio Mixing on a cool glass slab slows the setting reaction, extending the working time. 69 / 200 Category: Restorative 39) A patient's uvula raises on one side but not the other. Which nerve is responsible? Facial nerve Hypoglossal nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve Vagus nerve The vagus nerve controls the muscles of the soft palate, including the uvula. 70 / 200 Category: Restorative 40) Which material requires glazing to avoid dehydration? Glass ionomer Composite Amalgam Gold Glass ionomer requires glazing to prevent dehydration and maintain its properties. 71 / 200 Category: Restorative 41) Which approach is more esthetic for a class III restoration? Lingual Facial None Both A lingual approach is often more esthetic for class III restorations due to visibility. 72 / 200 Category: Restorative 42) What material is used for pouring casts? Refractory material Die stone Wax Plaster Die stone is the most common material for pouring casts due to its strength and accuracy. 73 / 200 Category: Restorative 43) A patient has white pigments around their teeth after removing orthodontic appliances. What is the most suitable action? Fluoride gel Fluoride varnish Restoration Reinforce oral hygiene instructions Reinforcing oral hygiene helps prevent further decalcification and improves overall dental health. 74 / 200 Category: Restorative 44) Which type of dentine is deposited in response to very deep caries? Primary Reactionary Secondary Reparative Reparative dentine forms in response to deep caries to protect the pulp. 75 / 200 Category: Restorative 45) Condensation of amalgam for 8 minutes results in: Easy to carve Amalgam will set Residual mercury increases No change Prolonged condensation causes the amalgam to set, making it difficult to manipulate. 76 / 200 Category: Restorative 46) Which factor indicates a high risk of caries? Open contact Fluorosis Using miswak Good oral hygiene Open contacts trap food and bacteria, increasing the risk of caries. 77 / 200 Category: Restorative 47) What is the best treatment for pitted enamel? Macroabrasion Microabrasion No treatment Fluoridation Macroabrasion removes superficial enamel defects, improving aesthetics. 78 / 200 Category: Restorative 48) A patient with gingivitis needs a class II composite restoration. What could affect the composite? All of the above Polymerization shrinkage Poor adhesion No direct effect Polymerization shrinkage can compromise the marginal seal of the composite restoration. 79 / 200 Category: Restorative 49) Which restoration for posterior teeth is both aesthetic and durable? Amalgam High filler composite Low filler composite RMGI High filler composite provides strength and aesthetics, making it suitable for posterior teeth. 80 / 200 Category: Restorative 50) How can alginate impression setting be accelerated for a gagging patient? Reduce powder/liquid ratio Hot water Increase mixing time Cold water Hot water accelerates the setting of alginate, reducing the time the impression material is in the mouth. 81 / 200 Category: Restorative 51) How does GIC compare to composite in terms of thermal expansion? Similar to enamel Excellent coefficient of expansion Similar to dentin Poor coefficient of expansion GIC has a thermal expansion coefficient closer to tooth structure, reducing microleakage. 82 / 200 Category: Restorative 52) What happens when zinc phosphate cement is used for cementation? Allergic reaction Pulp necrosis Sensitivity Discoloration Zinc phosphate can cause pulp necrosis due to its acidic nature and irritation. 83 / 200 Category: Restorative 53) A pediatric patient swallows a clamp. How can this be prevented in the future? Use dental floss Avoid using clamps Use a rubber dam Use a smaller clamp Dental floss tied to the clamp prevents it from being swallowed or aspirated. 84 / 200 Category: Restorative 54) What are the components of preventive resin restorations? Componer RMGI Composite Glass ionomer Preventive resin restorations primarily use composite due to its aesthetic and adhesive properties. 85 / 200 Category: Restorative 55) What is the best treatment for craze lines? Occlusal reduction Veneer Full crown No treatment Craze lines are superficial and typically do not require treatment unless symptomatic. 86 / 200 Category: Restorative 56) What happens if alginate is left under a wet towel for an hour before pouring? Syneresis Shrinkage Expansion Imbibition Imbibition causes the alginate to absorb water, leading to dimensional changes. 87 / 200 Category: Restorative 57) A patient has a small amalgam restoration in #16 that needs replacement. What is the best option? Cast ceramic Gold Composite Glass ionomer Composite is the most aesthetic and functional option for replacing small amalgam restorations. 88 / 200 Category: Restorative 58) A dentist uses latex gloves with polysulfide impression material, but the impression doesn’t set. Why? Sulfur contamination Temperature issues Insufficient mixing time Wrong paste proportion Sulfur in latex gloves can inhibit the setting of polysulfide impression material. 89 / 200 Category: Restorative 59) What is the cervico-occlusal length of a molar? 9.5 mm 10.5 mm 8.5 mm 7.5 mm The cervico-occlusal length of a molar is typically around 7.5 mm. 90 / 200 Category: Restorative 60) Why is flowable composite preferred over packable composite in preventive resin restorations? Higher strength Less microleakage Better aesthetics Low filler content Flowable composite reduces microleakage due to its ability to adapt to cavity walls. 91 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 1) A patient complains of discolored tooth #12. What is the best treatment? Composite Veneer Internal bleaching Crown A veneer is the best option for addressing discoloration while preserving tooth structure. 92 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 2) A patient with a large amalgam restoration and caries is a bruxer. What is the best restoration option? Ceramic onlay Metal crown Composite Amalgam A metal crown is the most durable option for a bruxer with a large restoration. 93 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 3) What is the concentration of hydrofluoric acid used for etching porcelain in case of chipping? Sulfuric acid Hydrofluoric acid 5-10% Phosphoric acid 37% Hydrofluoric acid 3-5% Hydrofluoric acid 5-10% is commonly used for etching porcelain to repair chipping. 94 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 4) What is the width of a shoulder margin finish line? 1.6-2 mm 1-1.5 mm 0.5-0.7 mm 2-2.5 mm A shoulder margin finish line should be 1-1.5 mm wide for adequate strength and esthetics. 95 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 5) A doctor wants to reduce the chroma of a restoration. What should be added? Add yellow Add violet Add green Add blue Adding violet can reduce the chroma and improve the esthetics of the restoration. 96 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 6) A patient had a provisional crown for 2 weeks, and bleeding persists during final impression. What to do? RC + ferric sulfate with polyether impression Extract the tooth RC + Epinephrine and PVS impression Adjust (or remake) the provisional and take it after 2 weeks Adjusting or remaking the provisional crown allows the tissue to heal before taking the final impression. 97 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 7) Which pontic design is hardest to clean? Sanitary Modified ridge lap Ovate Ridge lap A ridge lap pontic is difficult to clean due to its close contact with the ridge. 98 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 8) A patient has a peg lateral with localized gingivitis. What is the main objective of fabricating a provisional crown? Reduce sensitivity Address esthetic concerns Protect the pulp Improve oral hygiene A provisional crown protects the pulp while the final restoration is being fabricated. 99 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 9) A patient with a deep bite has a labial fracture of a PFM crown on the lower anterior. What is the cause? Incorrect anterior guidance Occlusal overload Fractured connector Poor cementation Occlusal overload due to a deep bite can cause fractures in PFM crowns. 100 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 10) A patient with a gold onlay complains of thermal hypersensitivity. What is the cause? Fracture Poor fit Sensitivity to cement Hyperocclusion Hyperocclusion can cause thermal hypersensitivity due to excessive pressure on the tooth. 101 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 11) During try-in of a crown, there was an anterior-superior slide. How to adjust? Buccal of max Mesial incline of max Distal incline of mand Lingual of mand Adjusting the mesial incline of the maxillary crown can correct anterior-superior slide. 102 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 12) An FPD with gold has rocking during metal try-in. What should be done? Re-cement the FPD Sectioning and soldering Adjust the occlusion Remake the FPD Sectioning and soldering the FPD ensures a proper fit and eliminates rocking. 103 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 13) A dentist over-prepared tooth #44 for a metal-ceramic crown, resulting in porcelain chipping. What is the cause? Improper bond between porcelain and metal Compromised framework Thick unsupported porcelain on the buccal side Improper porcelain condensation Thick unsupported porcelain on the buccal side can lead to chipping under occlusal forces. 104 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 14) A patient has a conservative access cavity on #36 with an MO amalgam restoration after RCT. What is the best restoration? Composite core and ceramic crown Cast post and PFM Amalgam core Cast post and ceramic crown A cast post and PFM crown provide the necessary strength and support for the tooth. 105 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 15) A child has interference in eccentric movement in the anterior teeth. How to manage? Reduce the lingual incline of lower anterior Reduce the incisal edge of maxillary anterior Reduce the lingual incline of upper anterior Reduce the incisal edge of mandibular anterior Reducing the lingual incline of upper anterior teeth eliminates eccentric interference. 106 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 16) What type of fracture occurs when porcelain chips at the incisal angle? Adhesive Static Cohesive Fatigue Cohesive fractures occur within the porcelain material itself, often due to internal stresses. 107 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 17) What is the flexure strength of a 3-unit bridge with 3 pontics? 25 MPa 30 MPa 27 MPa 20 MPa A 3-unit bridge with 3 pontics typically has a flexure strength of 27 MPa. 108 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 18) A patient complains of food accumulation in the cervical third of a newly placed crown. What could be the cause? Poor marginal fit Fractured connector Open contact Crown emergence profile An improper crown emergence profile can lead to food accumulation in the cervical area. 109 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 19) What type of occlusion is best for full-mouth rehabilitation? Bilateral None of the above Group function Canine guidance Canine guidance provides stable and functional occlusion for full-mouth rehabilitation. 110 / 200 Category: Fixed Prosthodontics 20) Gutta percha length is 22 mm. What is the length of the post? 20-18 mm 21-19 mm 22-20 mm 19-17 mm The post length should be 3-5 mm shorter than the gutta percha to maintain apical seal. 111 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 1) A patient misuses denture adhesive. What is the adverse effect? Loss of biting or cutting efficiency Stomatitis Xerostomia Occlusal discrepancies Misusing denture adhesive can reduce biting or cutting efficiency. 112 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 2) A patient has difficulty inserting and removing an RPD, and the retentive arm fractures. What is the cause? Occlusal issue Poor fit Cyclic fatigue of the retentive arm None of the above Cyclic fatigue can cause the retentive arm to fracture over time. 113 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 3) What is a complication of combination syndrome? Denture fracture Bone resorption in the lower jaw Tooth mobility Bone resorption in the upper jaw Combination syndrome often leads to bone resorption in the upper jaw. 114 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 4) A patient with new complete dentures complains of pain and erythema in both ridges. What is the cause? None of the above Premature contact in lateral movement Insufficient freeway space Insufficient vertical dimension Insufficient freeway space can cause pain and erythema in the ridges. 115 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 5) What is a common side effect of increasing vertical dimension in dentures? None of the above Gag reflex Angular cheilitis TMJ dysfunction Increasing vertical dimension can trigger the gag reflex in some patients. 116 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 6) A patient with an RPD complains of discomfort on the abutment tooth. What is the likely cause? Exposed dentin under rest Galvanic shock due to amalgam Vertical root fracture Occlusion Exposed dentin under the rest can cause discomfort due to sensitivity. 117 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 7) Which articulator captures the record of mandibular border movements? Semi-adjustable articulator Non-arcon articulator Fully adjustable articulator Arcon articulator A fully adjustable articulator captures mandibular border movements accurately. 118 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 8) A patient with a complete denture has redness under the denture and does not remove it at night. What to do? Reline the denture Explain the need to remove the denture Prescribe antifungal Adjust the denture Removing the denture at night prevents tissue irritation and redness. 119 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 9) A diabetic patient complains of discomfort with an upper RPD. What is the management? Prescribe insulin Prescribe acyclovir Reduction from the fitting surface Prednisone Reducing pressure from the fitting surface alleviates discomfort in diabetic patients. 120 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 10) A patient with an immediate denture complains of poor retention after 6-7 months. What is the best treatment? Adjust the denture Replace the denture Laboratory reline Rebase the denture A laboratory reline improves retention for immediate dentures. 121 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 11) What is a complication of combination syndrome? Upper posterior bone resorption Lower posterior bone resorption None of the above Tooth mobility Combination syndrome often leads to lower posterior bone resorption. 122 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 12) A patient complains that the denture falls out when pulling the lip. What is the cause? Labial notch Overextended posterior flange Buccal notch Buccal flange A labial notch can cause the denture to dislodge when pulling the lip. 123 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 13) What bur is used to prepare a V-shaped cingulum rest on tooth #13? Fissure bur Inverted cone bur Tapered bur Round bur An inverted cone bur is used to prepare a V-shaped cingulum rest. 124 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 14) A patient cannot insert a complete denture the next morning after removing it at night. What is the cause? Left in a dry field overnight Occlusal issue Lack of insertion skills Lack of frenum relief Leaving the denture in a dry field overnight can cause warping, making it difficult to insert. 125 / 200 Category: Removable Prosthodontics 15) What impression material is used for functional impressions in complete dentures? Impression compound Zinc oxide eugenol Addition silicone Alginate Alginate is commonly used for functional impressions. 126 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 1) A patient with fixed appliances has severe laceration and ulceration due to an extended wire. What is the best management? Apply gauze Apply wax Clip the wire Reassure the patient Clipping the wire is the most effective way to relieve irritation. 127 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 2) Which type of occlusion is used in Wits appraisal? Functional occlusion Palatal plane Mandibular plane Frankfort plane Functional occlusion is used in Wits appraisal. 128 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 3) Which type of occlusion is a contraindication for an anterior bite plane? Open bite Normal occlusion Deep bite Crossbite Anterior bite planes are contraindicated in patients with open bites. 129 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 4) What causes mesial resorption of bone and distal deposits? Winding of the diastema Trauma Orthodontic extrusion Physiologic mesial migration of a tooth Physiologic mesial migration of a tooth can cause these bone changes. 130 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 5) What type of primary occlusion ends with Class III? Open bite Distal step Mesial step Flush Mesial step occlusion is associated with Class III malocclusion. 131 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 6) A pediatric patient has an anterior open bite, posterior crossbite, and a thumb-sucking habit. What is the best appliance? Hawley retainer Facemask Quad helix Palatal crib A palatal crib is effective for addressing thumb-sucking and associated dental issues. 132 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 7) An 11-year-old patient has Class II skeletal malocclusion due to a retruded mandible. What is the best appliance? Headgear Facemask Functional appliance Fixed orthodontic appliance Functional appliances are effective for enhancing mandibular growth. 133 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 8) An orthodontic patient is in pain. What medication is most appropriate? Paracetamol Aspirin Ibuprofen Naproxen Paracetamol is the safest option for pain relief in orthodontic patients. 134 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 9) A 19-year-old patient has maxillary constriction. What is the best treatment? Surgical-assisted maxillary expansion Rapid expansion Orthodontic treatment LeFort osteotomy Surgical-assisted maxillary expansion (SARPE) is the best treatment for maxillary constriction in adults. 135 / 200 Category: Orthodontics 10) A patient with Class II malocclusion and a good facial profile needs correction of deep bite and overjet. What is the best treatment? Extract upper first premolars Functional appliance Orthognathic surgery No treatment Extracting upper first premolars is a common treatment for deep bite and overjet. 136 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 1) A child’s family has hurt his feelings. What type of abuse is this? Neglect Emotional abuse Physical abuse Sexual abuse Emotional abuse involves psychological harm. 137 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 2) Which child is most likely to be abused? Child with high socioeconomic status Child with low socioeconomic status Child with no siblings Child with good academic performance Children from low socioeconomic backgrounds are at higher risk of abuse. 138 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 3) A girl has neck scratches and petechiae on the palate. What is the most likely cause? Emotional abuse Neglect Sexual abuse Physical abuse These signs are often associated with sexual abuse. 139 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 4) A 3-year-old patient has multiple surface caries. What is the best restoration? Composite RMGIC Amalgam SSC SSCs are ideal for extensive caries in primary teeth. 140 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 5) A child has multiple abscesses, caries, and appears medically neglected. What is the most likely cause? Neglect Emotional abuse Sexual abuse Physical abuse Multiple untreated dental issues suggest neglect. 141 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 6) A pediatric patient has a picture provided. What is the estimated age? 3 years 9 years 7 years 5 years Based on dental development, the patient is likely 3 years old. 142 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 7) At the end of treatment, how can the dentist reinforce desired behavior in a pediatric patient? Negative reinforcement Punishment No reinforcement Positive reinforcement Positive reinforcement encourages cooperative behavior. 143 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 8) A pediatric patient has an avulsed tooth for less than 1 hour. What should be done before splinting? No immersion needed Extract the tooth (primary tooth) Immerse in minocycline (open apex) Immerse in 2% sodium fluoride for 20 minutes (closed apex) Sodium fluoride immersion is recommended for avulsed permanent teeth with closed apices. 144 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 9) A pediatric patient with an SSC complains of pain and bleeding. The SSC is 2 mm high, and X-rays show overhangs. What is the cause? Poor cementation Normal adjustment Improper SSC size Inadequate occlusal reduction Improper SSC size can cause overhangs and discomfort. 145 / 200 Category: Pedodontics 10) A pediatric patient has caries on the lateral incisor incisally and proximally. What is the best esthetic restoration? GIC Resin-faced SSC Composite SSC Resin-faced SSCs provide both durability and esthetics. 146 / 200 Category: Periodontics 1) A patient has gingival overgrowth. What is the surgical treatment? Internal bevel gingivectomy External bevel gingivectomy Flap surgery Crown lengthening External bevel gingivectomy is used to treat gingival overgrowth. 147 / 200 Category: Periodontics 2) A patient has class I furcation involvement with 4 mm depth and bleeding. What is the treatment? Gingivectomy Extraction Scaling and root planning with odontoplasty Flap surgery Scaling and root planning with odontoplasty are used for class I furcation. 148 / 200 Category: Periodontics 3) What is the most common clinical picture of thin biotype? Gingival recession McCall festoons Stillman clefts Fenestration and dehiscence Fenestration and dehiscence are common in thin biotypes. 149 / 200 Category: Periodontics 4) During crown lengthening, if the margin is 1 mm from the bone, what should be done? Perform a flap Close and suture Remove 2 mm more Wait and observe Removing an additional 2 mm ensures adequate biologic width for crown placement. 150 / 200 Category: Periodontics 5) A patient has discomfort around an implant with excellent oral hygiene. What is the cause? Overloading Peri-implantitis Poor implant placement Insufficient keratinized tissue Insufficient keratinized tissue can cause discomfort around implants. 151 / 200 Category: Periodontics 6) Where is the vertical release incision placed during GTR on #11? Mesial angle to #12 Mesial angle to #13 Distal angle to #12 Distal angle to #13 The vertical release incision is placed distal to #13 for access to #11. 152 / 200 Category: Periodontics 7) A patient is unsatisfied with orthodontic results and has gingival overgrowth. What is the treatment? Crown lengthening Orthognathic surgery Antibiotics Gingivectomy Gingivectomy is used to address gingival overgrowth. 153 / 200 Category: Periodontics 8) A patient has a 5 mm probing depth on a lower canine, no inflammation, and 4 mm attached gingiva. What is the diagnosis? Deficient attached gingiva Gingival overgrowth (fibrotic) Healthy periodontium Periodontitis Gingival overgrowth (fibrotic type) is likely in the absence of inflammation. 154 / 200 Category: Periodontics 9) What happens to a 21-year-old female patient during menstruation? Increased exudate and bacteria Gingival enlargement Tooth mobility Bone loss Hormonal changes during menstruation can increase gingival exudate and bacteria. 155 / 200 Category: Periodontics 10) How deep can toothbrush bristles penetrate the sulcus? 3 - 4 mm 2 - 3 mm 1 - 2 mm 0.5 - 1 mm Toothbrush bristles can penetrate 0.5 - 1 mm into the sulcus. 156 / 200 Category: Periodontics 11) Which statement is less likely correct about smoking and periodontal disease? Smokers have more plaque Smoking decreases inflammation Smoking causes imbalance between bacteria and host response Smokers have more red and orange complex bacteria Smokers do not necessarily have more plaque, but they have altered bacterial flora. 157 / 200 Category: Periodontics 12) A radiograph shows supragingival calculus. What instrument is used for scaling? Scaler Chisel Hoe Curette Scalers are used to remove supragingival calculus. 158 / 200 Category: Periodontics 13) A case with 0.5 mm ferrule, 5 mm remaining GP, and 2/3 post length. The crown fractured. What is the cause? Insufficient post length Insufficient ferrule effect Poor cementation Insufficient GP Insufficient ferrule effect is a common cause of crown fracture. 159 / 200 Category: Periodontics 14) What is the most important factor in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)? Smoking Emotional stress Poor oral hygiene Periodontitis Emotional stress is a significant contributing factor in NUG. 160 / 200 Category: Periodontics 15) A patient has 4 mm recession and 3 mm pocket depth. What does this indicate? 2 mm pocket depth 7 mm attachment loss 7 mm pseudo pocket 4 mm attachment loss The total attachment loss is the sum of recession and pocket depth (4 + 3 = 7 mm). 161 / 200 Category: Periodontics 16) What is the basis for choosing dental floss for a patient? Roughness of contact Comfort Proximal contact tightness Manual dexterity Comfort is the primary factor in choosing dental floss for a patient. 162 / 200 Category: Periodontics 17) A lower molar has grade III furcation involvement. What is the best way to preserve the tooth? Tunneling Hemisection Root amputation Odontoplasty Hemisection is used to preserve teeth with grade III furcation involvement. 163 / 200 Category: Periodontics 18) A patient has multiple deep pockets after perio treatment. What is the goal of periodontal surgery? Gingivectomy Bone grafting Root coverage Pocket reduction Pocket reduction is the primary goal of periodontal surgery. 164 / 200 Category: Periodontics 19) A patient has 2-3 mm bone loss under the CEJ in some areas. What does this indicate? Periodontitis Trauma Within normal limits Bone resorption 2-3 mm bone loss under the CEJ is considered within normal limits. 165 / 200 Category: Periodontics 20) What is another name for the clear gingival sulcus? Gingival crevice Interdental papilla Gingival margin Mucogingival junction The gingival crevice is another term for the gingival sulcus. 166 / 200 Category: Implant 1) What is the treatment for recession caused by remaining cement? Soft tissue graft Remove cement Change crown Bone graft Removing the remaining cement resolves the issue. 167 / 200 Category: Implant 2) Where should an anterior implant be placed? Lateral to midline At midline Incisive papilla Lingual papilla Anterior implants should be placed lateral to the midline. 168 / 200 Category: Implant 3) What causes bleeding and deep pockets around an implant? Poor hygiene Space between implant and tooth Excess cement Loose screw Space between the implant and tooth can cause bleeding and pockets. 169 / 200 Category: Implant 4) What is the treatment for a failed implant with a bone fragment? Bone graft Soft tissue graft Implant with GBR Remove implant Implant with Guided Bone Regeneration (GBR) is the best approach for bone repair. 170 / 200 Category: Implant 5) What injury can occur if no graft is done before placing an implant? Mentalis nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Mental foramen Incisive nerve The mental foramen can be injured without proper grafting. 171 / 200 Category: Implant 6) What category does a 3.5 or 4.1 mm implant fall under? Regular Wide Narrow Extra-wide 3.5 or 4.1 mm implants are considered regular. 172 / 200 Category: Implant 7) What is the treatment for a 7 mm remaining bone height after extraction? External sinus lift Bone graft Internal sinus lift Immediate implant Internal sinus lift is suitable for 7 mm bone height. 173 / 200 Category: Implant 8) What should be done if the distal implant is failing? Remove distal implant Bone augmentation Vertical bone graft Change crown Removing the failing implant is the best approach. 174 / 200 Category: Implant 9) What is the minimum space for a cemented crown on a central incisor? 4-5 mm 5-6 mm 9-10 mm 7-8 mm 7-8 mm is the minimum space for a cemented crown. 175 / 200 Category: Implant 10) What is the treatment for an implant with buccal recession? CT Graft Soft tissue graft Change crown Remove and replace implant CT Graft is the appropriate treatment for buccal recession to restore bone volume. 176 / 200 Category: Implant 11) What is the use of a prophy jet? Polishing amalgam Removing calculus On implant For hemodialysis patients A prophy jet is used on implants for cleaning. 177 / 200 Category: Implant 12) What is the recall interval after the first year for a stable implant? 3-4 months 1-2 months 5-6 months 7-8 months 5-6 months is the recommended recall interval after the first year. 178 / 200 Category: Implant 13) What is the diagnosis for recession and probing depth around an implant? Peri-implantitis Mucositis Bone loss Mucosal recession Mucosal recession is characterized by recession and probing depth. 179 / 200 Category: Implant 14) What is the best coping for an aesthetic anterior implant? Healing abutment Transfer pin Customized coping impression Open tray coping Customized coping impressions provide the best aesthetics. 180 / 200 Category: Implant 15) What causes failure of an implant in the picture? Recession Poor crown seating Insufficient keratinized tissue Implant size Insufficient keratinized tissue can lead to implant failure. 181 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 1) A patient with mild mental retardation needs consent. Who should provide it? Parents Doctors Patient Proxy decision maker Parents can provide consent if the patient is incapable. 182 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 2) How should instruments be cleaned in a sink? Flat Fully immersed Partly immersed Dry Fully immersing ensures thorough cleaning. 183 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 3) How long should sterilization take at 121°C? 15 minutes 10 minutes 30 minutes 20 minutes Sterilization at 121°C takes 15 minutes. 184 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 4) A vaccinated dentist gets a needle stick injury from an HBV-positive patient. What should they do? Get an antibodies vaccine Nothing Get anti-immune treatment Get anti-immune and antibodies No action is needed if vaccinated. 185 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 5) What violates patient confidentiality? Sharing with family Transmitting patient information via email Discussing with colleagues Writing in patient records Email transmission violates confidentiality. 186 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 6) A restorable tooth needs RCT, but the patient and mother refuse and want extraction. What should you do? Take informed consent and proceed with extraction Get a second opinion Refuse to extract Perform RCT against their wishes Informed consent is required for treatment decisions. 187 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 7) How should carbon posts and burs be sterilized? Dry heat Chemical Autoclave UV light Dry heat is used for carbon posts and burs. 188 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 8) You stick your finger while retracting during an IANB. What should you do first? Report Check patient history Encourage bleeding Wash the site Washing the site is the first step. 189 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 9) A patient with anxiety disorder and tooth wear needs management. What should you do? Refuse treatment Do nothing Refer for advanced restoration and psychology Proceed with treatment Comprehensive care includes psychological support. 190 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 10) How should a biopsy be sent to the lab? Sterile container Biohazard bag with saline Biohazard bag with formalin Regular bag Biohazard bags with formalin ensure safe transport. 191 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 11) How should a biopsy be stored before sending it to the lab? Alcohol Saline Water Formalin Formalin preserves tissue for biopsy. 192 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 12) A patient wants an anterior crown, but you suggest less aggressive treatment. What should you do? Refuse treatment Refer for a second opinion Do nothing Proceed with the crown A second opinion ensures informed decision-making. 193 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 13) A patient needs extraction of a lower third molar near the IAN. What should you do? Do nothing Refer to OMF Extract the tooth Explain and give the patient a choice Referral to an oral surgeon is appropriate for complex cases. 194 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 14) What is an extracted asymptomatic tooth considered? Infectious Hazardous Sterile Contaminated Extracted teeth are considered infectious waste. 195 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 15) You cut your finger while applying a matrix. What should you do? Apply sanitizer on gloves Apply plaster Do nothing Wash with antiseptic Antiseptic washing prevents infection. 196 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 16) A patient is referred for third molar extraction, but you find resorption in tooth 7. What should you do? Proceed with extraction Refer the patient until you inform their doctor Tell the patient only Do nothing The patient should be informed of findings. 197 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 17) A doctor refuses to publish research with bad results due to fear of reputation damage. What did he violate? Ethics of researcher Autonomy Non-maleficence Ethics of confidentiality Suppressing research violates research ethics. 198 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 18) You extracted the wrong tooth. What should you do? Do nothing Extract the correct tooth Refer to another dentist Inform the patient Transparency is required for patient trust. 199 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 19) Synthesizing information and perspectives demonstrates what role? Health Advocate Medical Expert Communicator Researcher Synthesizing information is part of communication. 200 / 200 Category: Professionalism and bioethics , infection control and patient safety 20) A sterilization bag has a blue color indicator. What should you do? Discard the bag Report and send it back Use the instruments Repeat sterilization A blue indicator may indicate incomplete sterilization. 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